CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 100% Option B

January 2, 2018January 2, 2018 admin 0 Comments

1. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.*

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

2. Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?

EIGRP

BGP

OSPF*

RIPv2

3. In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?

distribution

transport

internet

access*

core

4. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
show ip protocols

show ip interface

show cdp neighbors*

show port-security

show mac-address-table

5. A switched network has converged completely. All switches currently have a VTP revision number of 5. A new switch that has been configured as a VTP server is added to the network. The new switch has a VTP revision number of 4. What will occur within the network?

The network will no longer share VLAN database updates.

The newly added switch will automatically switch to VTP client mode.

The VTP databases will remain unchanged in all switches with the exception of the newly added switch.*

All switches in the network will update their VTP database to reflect the VTP database of the new switch.

6. What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)

In the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created, modified, and deleted on the switch.*

Switches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.*

A switch in transparent mode with a higher configuration revision number than the existing VTP server updates all VLAN information throughout the VTP domain.

To reset a configuration revision number, the switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded.

VTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.*

Switches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if their revision numbers are the same.

7. A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?

Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.*

Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.

Configure the VLANs on the new switch.

Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.

8. A network administrator is adding a new VLAN for testing. The company uses VTP and the VLAN is not directly attached to either of the switches configured as VTP servers. What is the best method to add this VLAN to the network?

Change the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN to be in VTP server mode.

Configure a port on the VTP servers for the same VLAN as the new VLAN.

Manually add the VLAN to the VLAN database of the VTP servers.*

Configure interfaces on the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN and reboot the switch.

9. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – trunk*

access – trunk

access – dynamic auto

10. Refer to the exhibit.

The configuration shows the commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?

trunking

port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports

VLAN configuration*

router port configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit.

Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.

There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.*

VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.

VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.

This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.*

12. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Include a router in the topology.

Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*

Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

13. What are two drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network? (Choose two.)

The switch acts like a hub.

Port security becomes unstable.

The MAC address table becomes unstable.*

Broadcast frames are transmitted indefinitely.*

Port security shuts down all of the ports that have attached devices.

14. Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?

root port*

non-designated port

designated port

disabled port

15. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the role of the SW3 switch?

designated switch

edge switch

root bridge*

enabled bridge

local bridge

16. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

SW1 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will get a port blocked.

SW4 will get a port blocked.*

SW3 will become the root bridge.*

SW4 will become the root bridge.

17. Which spanning tree standard was developed by Cisco to provide separate instances of 802.1w per VLAN?

RSTP

802.1D

MSTP

Rapid PVST+*

18. Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?

VLSM

PVST

802.1Q

RSTP*

VTP

19. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?

The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the root bridge.*

The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the backup root bridge.

The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switches believing they are the root.

The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.

20. An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?

A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.

Spanning tree should be disabled for that STP instance until the problem is located.

Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.

Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.*

21. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switching technology would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?

EtherChannel*

HSRP

PortFast

trunking

22. What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.*

Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.

EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.

Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.*

Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.

23. When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?

interface range

loopback

VLAN interface

port channel*

24. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?

active

auto

desirable

passive*

25. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

desirable*

active

auto*

passive

26. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*

It is nonproprietary.

It uses a virtual router master.

It works together with VRRP.

27. A new chief information officer (CIO) has requested implementation of a link-state dynamic routing protocol. Which two routing protocols fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)

RIPv2

BGP

OSPF*

IS-IS*

EIGRP

28. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is utilizing RIPv1 in the exhibited network topology. What would the router R2 do with a packet that is originating from the 192.168.4.0/24 network and destined for network 172.16.1.0/24?

The router will forward the packet to R1.

The router will forward the packet to R3.

The router will load balance and forward packets to both R1 and R3.*

The router will drop the packet.

29. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.

They only send out updates when a new network is added.

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*

They flood the entire network with routing updates.

30. Which statement defines the speed of convergence of routing protocols?

The time it takes a router to form a neighbor adjacency.

The time it takes a router to learn about directly connected links..

The time it takes a router to calculate the cost of a link.

The time it takes a router within a network to forward routing information.*

31. What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

low processor overhead

poison reverse

routing loops

split horizon

Shortest Path First calculations*

32. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?

R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7*

R1-R3-R2-R6-R7

R1-R2-R6-R7

R1-R4-R5-R6-R7

33. What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?

The path with the least number of hops.

The path with the smallest delays.

The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.*

The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.

34. Which two pieces of information are contained within a link-state packet (LSP)? (Choose two.)

hop count

bandwidth*

link type*

delay

load

35. What is a difference between the routing protocols EIGRP and OSPF?

EIGRP uses hop count as the metric and OSPF uses cost as the metric.

EIGRP is an implementation of EGP whereas OSPF is an implementation of IGP.

EIGRP supports routing different network layer protocols whereas OSPF supports routing only IP-based protocols.*

EIGRP only supports equal-cost load balancing whereas OSPF supports both equal-cost and unequal-cost load balancing.

36. What protocol is used by EIGRP for the delivery and receipt of EIGRP packets?

RTP*

TCP

UDP

ICMP

37. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?

It carries the geographical information of the organization.

It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.*

It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.

It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.

38. How is bandwidth to a destination network calculated by EIGRP?

the lowest configured bandwidth of any interface along the route*

the sum of the configured bandwidths of all interfaces along the path

the highest configured bandwidth of any interface along the path

the bandwidth of the ingress interface of the last hop router

39. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.

The router uses the default route.

The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*

The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

40. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.*

R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.

The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.

If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.

41. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has attempted to implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.

There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.

The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit interface when creating a default route.

The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.*

The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.

42. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?

A static default route was configured on this router.*

A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.

The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command.

The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0.

43. Which command would limit the amount of bandwidth that is used by EIGRP for protocol control traffic to approximately 128 Kb/s on a 1.544 Mb/s link?

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 8*

maximum-paths 8

variance 8

traffic-share balanced

44. Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?

the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router

the IP address of the highest active interface on the router

the router-id rid command*

the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface

45. What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?

The interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1 will be a passive interface.

OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.*

This command will have no effect because it uses a quad zero wildcard mask.

OSPF advertisements will include the specific IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.

46. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.*

The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*

The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.

The link interface subnet masks must match.*

The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

47. Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

FF02::5

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2

2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2

FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538*

48. When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

when the router has interfaces in different areas*

when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator

when the router has the highest router ID

when the router has an OSPF priority of 0

49. Which type of OSPF router connects an OSPF area to non-OSPF routing domains?

ABR

ASBR*

backbone router

50. Which function is performed by an OSPF ABR?

flooding type 2 LSAs within an area

originating type 5 LSAs into an area

injecting type 3 LSAs into an area*

advertising the router ID of any designated routers within an area

51. What type of OSPF IPv4 route is indicated by a route table entry descriptor of O E1?

a summary route that is advertised by an ABR

an intra-area route that is advertised by the DR

an external route that is advertised by an ASBR*

a directly connected route that is associated with an Ethernet interface

52. In which mode is the area area-id range address mask command issued when multiarea OSPF summarization is being configured?

global configuration mode

router configuration mode*

interface configuration mode of area 0 interfaces

interface configuration mode of all participating interfaces

53. Refer to the exhibit.

What are three resulting DR and DBR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)

R4 is BDR for segment B.

R4 is DR for segment B.

R3 is DR for segment A.*

R2 is DR for segment A.

R3 is BDR for segment B.*

R5 is DR for segment B.*

54. After implementing an IPv6 network, the administrator notices that the OSPFv3 process is not starting on the routers. What could be the problem?

The routers are configured with the default priority.

Authentication was not implemented between the routers.

No router IDs are configured on the routers.*

The routers were not configured with the network command.

55. Refer to the exhibit.

How did this router learn of the highlighted route in the routing table?

by entering the router configuration mode command default-information originate

by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 interface-type interface-number

by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 ip-address

by receiving an update from another OSPF router that is running another routing protocol

by receiving an update from another OSPF router that has the default-information originate command configured*

56. Which command can be used to view OSPF adjacencies with neighboring routers along with the transition state?

show ip protocols

show ip ospf neighbor*

show ip ospf interface

show running-config

57. Match the description to the EIGRP packet type. (Not all options are used.)

58. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)

192.168.11.64 => destination network

660110 => feasible distance to 192.168.11.64

192.168.3.1 => new successor to network 192.168.1.0

59. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

adjacency database => This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found.
Shortest Path First => This is the algorithm used by OSPF.
Single-area OSPF => All the routers are in the backbone area.
– not scored –
link-state database => This is where you can find the topology table.
– not scored –

60. Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)

The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually. => priority 4

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface. => priority 3

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface. => prority 2

The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any. => priority 1

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