Category Archives: CCNA 2 v6.0

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 (Option C)

CCNA 2 Routing and Switching Essentials v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018

(Option C)

1 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H3?

 1
1
2*    
3
4
5
6

2 Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

 

2

0.0.0.0

172.16.100.128* 

172.16.100.2

110

791

3 On which two routers would a default static route be configured? (Choose two.)

stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network*   

any router where a backup route to dynamic routing is needed for reliability

edge router connection to the ISP *  

any router running an IOS prior to 12.0
the router that serves as the gateway of last resort

4 Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

4

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1*   

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

5 Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

5

Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.

Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. *

Add an administrative distance of 254.

6 A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200* 

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

7 Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​

7 

Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.

Change the administrative distance to 1.

Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.

Change the administrative distance to 120.*

8 Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.* 

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9 Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve netw​ork security.*

They use fewer router resources.*   

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

10 Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?

10

RIPv2 does not support VLSM.

RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.

RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.*  

RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.

RIPv2 does not support discontiguous networks.

11 Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

11 
110
1*   
782
0

12 A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

default route

supernet route

ultimate route*   

parent route

level 2 child route*

13 Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*   

ISP selection

speed of convergence*  

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

14 What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains

aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries

provides access to the user*   

provides fault isolation

15 What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?    

access* 

core

data link

network

network access

16 What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?

Drop the frame.

Send the frame to the default gateway address.

Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame.

Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received.*

17 Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

collision detecting

frame error checking* 

faster frame forwarding

frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

18 Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching* 

19 In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed* 

when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

20 A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address*   

VTP domain

vty lines*  

default VLAN

default gateway*  

loopback address

21 As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses*

22 A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?

off

restrict

protect* 

shutdown

23 What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.*

24 Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

24 
1
2
3
4
5
6* 

25 Which statement describes a characteristic of the extended range VLANs that are created on a Cisco 2960 switch?

They are numbered VLANs 1002 to 1005.

They cannot be used across multiple switches.

They are reserved to support Token Ring VLANs.

They are not stored in the vlan.dat file.* 

26 A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk***

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

27 A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2

172.16.26.254

172.16.47.254* 

172.16.48.5

28 The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list  standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

29 A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*  

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

30 What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased*   

to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

for hosts on other subnets to receive the information

for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

31 What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 inclusive.*    

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

32 A host on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN is not being assigned an IPv4 address by an enterprise DHCP server with the address 10.10.200.10/24. What is the best way for the network engineer to resolve this problem?

Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.*    

Issue the command default-router 10.10.200.10 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.100.0 on the router interface that is the 10.10.200.0/24 gateway.

Issue the command network 10.10.200.0 255.255.255.0 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

33 What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface* 

a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

34 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

34
ipv6 unicast-routing
dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​
ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​
ipv6 nd other-config-flag*​  
prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70

35 Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

35
10.130.5.76
209.165.200.245
203.0.113.5*  
172.16.1.10
192.0.2.1
209.165.200.226

36 Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on RT1 and RT2. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between RT2 and the web server?

 36

192.0.2.2

172.16.1.10

203.0.113.10

172.16.1.254

192.168.1.5

209.165.200.245*

37 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

37
The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.* 
The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.*   
The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.
Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.
The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.

38 Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

38
10.0.0.31
172.16.12.5
172.16.12.33
172.16.25.35 *
192.168.1.10

39 What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*  
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

40 A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

show ip protocols
show ip interface
show cdp neighbors*   
show port-security
show mac-address-table

41 What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting*
to select the type of logging information that is captured*
to specify the destinations of captured messages* 
to periodically poll agents for data
to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device
to provide traffic analysis

42 A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?

System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.
System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.
System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.* 
System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.

43 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.*  
This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.
This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.
This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

44 What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.* 
It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.

45 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

45

The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.
The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.
The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.* 
The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

46 Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

46

host B
host C*
host D* 
host E
host F* 
host G

47 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the

47

R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

192.168.9.254

192.168.10.1

192.168.10.2

192.168.11.252*  

192.168.11.254

48 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

48 
because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

because VLAN 99 has not yet been created*

49 Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are uesd.)

49

50 Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

50

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 (Option B)

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 (Option B)

1 Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

1

 
Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10*

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

2 What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

to enable the router as an IPv6 router*

to permit only unicast packets on the router

to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

3 What is a characteristic of a static route that creates a gateway of last resort?

It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.

It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.* 

It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

4 Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

4

 
S   10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2*  
S   0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2
C   10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
S   10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

5 Refer to the exhibit. Which command will properly configure an IPv6 static route on R2 that will allow traffic from PC2 to reach PC1 without any recursive lookups by router R2?

5

 
R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32::1

R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0 *

R2(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:32::1

R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1

6 A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200 *

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

7 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?

7
The network prefix is incorrect.

The destination network is incorrect.

The interface is incorrect. *

The next hop address is incorrect.

8 Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9 Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve netw​ork security. *

They use fewer router resources. *

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

10 To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 172.16.64.32 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

172.16.64.32

172.16.64.0

172.16.0.0*   

No address is displayed.

11 Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

11
110

1*   

782

0

12 Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?

a level 1 child route

a level 1 parent route

a level 1 ultimate route*  

a level 2 supernet route

13 Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*  

ISP selection

speed of convergence*  

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

14 Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

distribution

data link

physical

access*   

core

15 Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

a collapsed core network design*    

a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

16 Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*    

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

17 Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

collision detecting

frame error checking*   

faster frame forwarding

frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

18 Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching occurs with lower latency.

Frames are forwarded without any error checking.*    

Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.

19 What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

The number of broadcast domains is increased.

The size of the broadcast domain is increased.* 

The number of collision domains is reduced.

The size of the collision domain is increased.

20 In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed*  

when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

21 A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address*

VTP domain

vty lines*  

default VLAN

default gateway *  

loopback address

22 As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses*

23 A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

off

restrict

protect *

shutdown

24 Which commands are used to re-enable a port that has been disabled as a result of a port security violation?

shutdown
no shutdown*

shutdown
no switchport port-security

shutdown
no switchport port-security violation shutdown

shutdown
no switchport port-security maximum

25 Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.* 

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

26 Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

user-generated

tagged

untagged *

management

27 An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.

These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.

These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.

Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.*

28 Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?

 28
The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.

The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.*   

The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​

The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.

29 A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2

172.16.26.254

172.16.36.255* 

172.16.48.5

30 The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list  standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

31 A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*  

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

32 Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1****

dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

33 Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

 33

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.*

34 What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface*  

a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

35 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

 35
ipv6 unicast-routing

dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

ipv6 nd other-config-flag​*  

prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70

36 Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

 36
10.130.5.76

209.165.200.245

203.0.113.5 *  

172.16.1.10

192.0.2.1

209.165.200.226

37 Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Telnet

IPsec * 

HTTP

ICMP

DNS

38 A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

an IPv4 address pool

an ACL to identify the local IPv4 address of the web server

the keyword overload for the ip nat inside source command

the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses*

39 Which configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload***

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload
ip nat inside source static 10.0.0.5 209.165.200.225

40 What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses. * 

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

41 Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

 41

The NAT pool has been exhausted. *

The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.

Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.

42 A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

show ip protocols

show ip interface

show cdp neighbors*   

show port-security

show mac-address-table

43 Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.*  

The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.

An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.*  

The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

44 A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?

System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.

System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.

System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.*  

System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.


45 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

 
This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.*  

This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.


46 What is indicated by the M in the Cisco IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin?

a maintenance deployment release

a minor release

a mainline release

an extended maintenance release*

47 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is preparing to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. Based on the output shown, how much space is available for the new image?

 47

25574400 bytes

249856000 bytes

221896413 bytes*    

33591768 bytes


48 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

 48

because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface

because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command* 


49 Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

 
50 Order the DHCP process steps. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 (Option A)

CCNA 2 Routing and Switching Essentials v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018

(Option A)

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

0.0.0.0

172.16.100.64*

172.16.100.2

110

791

2.

p2

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

1

2*

3

4

5

6

 

3. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

standard static route

floating static route*

default static route

summary static route

4.

p4

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

C 172.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2*

S 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

5. What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

::/128

::/0*

::1/64

FFFF::/128

6. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

7.

p7

Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100*

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

8. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve network security.*

They use fewer router resources.*

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

10. A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?

The router will be reset to the default factory information.

The router will not forward routing information that is learned from other routers.

The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present.*

The router will only forward packets that originate on directly connected networks.

11.

p11

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

1*

0

90

20512256

12. A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

default route

supernet route

ultimate route*

parent route

level 2 child route*

13. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*

ISP selection

speed of convergence*

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

14. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

distribution

data link

physical

access*

core

15. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus

provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies*

distributes access to end users

represents the network edge

16. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

17. Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?

Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.*

Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.

Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

18. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching*

19. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed*

when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

20. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address*

VTP domain

vty lines*

default VLAN

default gateway*

loopback address

21. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses*

22. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

off

restrict

protect*

shutdown

23. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict*

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

24.

p24

Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

Spanning Tree

RIP v2

IEEE 802.1Q*

ARP

Rapid Spanning Tree

25. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.

Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.*

Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

26. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.*

Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.

Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.

The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

27.

p27

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

It identifies the subinterface.

It identifies the VLAN number.*

It identifies the native VLAN number.

It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.

28. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

0.0.0.127

0.0.0.255

0.0.1.255*

0.0.255.255

A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

29. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

30. A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

31.What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased*

to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

for hosts on other subnets to receive the information

for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

32. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1*

dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

33. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip dhcp pool

ip address dhcp*

service dhcp

ip helper-address

34.

p34

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

35.

p35

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

ipv6 unicast-routing

dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

ipv6 nd other-config-flag​*

prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​

36.

p36

Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

10.130.5.76

209.165.200.245

203.0.113.5*

172.16.1.10

192.0.2.1

209.165.200.226

37.

p37

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.*

The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.*

The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.

Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.

The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.

38.

p38

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration incorrect?

The static NAT entry is missing.

NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.*

The ACL does not define the list of addresses to be translated.

The overload keyword should not have been applied.

39. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365*

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary

40.

p40

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses

PAT using an external interface*

static NAT with one entry

static NAT with a NAT pool

41.

p41

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.*

The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

42. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

show ip protocols

show ip interface

show cdp neighbors*

show port-security

show mac-address-table

43. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.*

The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.

An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.*

The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

44. What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting*

to select the type of logging information that is captured*

to specify the destinations of captured messages*

to periodically poll agents for data

to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

to provide traffic analysis

45.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.*

This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

46. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

Software Claim Certificate

End User License Agreement

Unique Device Identifier

Product Activation Key*

47.

p47

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

192.168.9.254

192.168.10.1

192.168.10.2

192.168.11.252*

192.168.11.254

48. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
full operating system -> flash
limited operating system -> ROM
routing table -> RAM
startup configuration file -> NVRAM

49. Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are used.)

C CCNA 2 v6 final p49
Place the options in the following order: 
hierarchical 
modularity 
resiliency 
– not scored – 
flexibility

50. Match the description to the correct VLAN type. (Not all options are used.)

 

A CCNA 2 v6 final p50

B CCNA 2 v6 final p50

51.  Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

management

user-generated

tagged

untagged*

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 10 Exam Answers 2017

1. A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?

The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.

The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.*

The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.

The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established from a non-directly connected network.

 

2. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?​

The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity​.

To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.

CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface​.*

Because it runs at the data link layer​, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

 

3. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices*

to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)

Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.

Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.*

Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client.

The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2.*

The IP address of R2 is 192.168.1.2.

 

5. Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.

All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.

NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.*

NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.*

NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.

 

6. The command ntp server 10.1.1.1 is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?

determines which server to send system log files to

identifies the server on which to store backup configurations

ensures that all logging will have a time stamp associated with it

synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1*

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the syslog message that was generated by the router? (Choose two.)

This message resulted from an unusual error requiring reconfiguration of the interface.

This message indicates that the interface should be replaced.

This message is a level 5 notification message.*

This message indicates that service timestamps have been configured.*

This message indicates that the interface changed state five times.

 

8. Which protocol or service allows network administrators to receive system messages that are provided by network devices?

syslog*

NTP

SNMP

NetFlow

 

9. Which syslog message type is accessible only to an administrator and only via the Cisco CLI?

errors

debugging*

emergency

alerts

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. From what location have the syslog messages been retrieved?

syslog server

syslog client

router RAM*

router NVRAM

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 17:46:26.143 represent?

the time passed since the syslog server has been started

the time when the syslog message was issued*

the time passed since the interfaces have been up

the time on the router when the show logging command was issued

 

12. What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

terminal line

syslog server

console line*

workstation

 

13. A network administrator has issued the logging trap 4 global configuration mode command. What is the result of this command?

After four events, the syslog client will send an event message to the syslog server.

The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and higher.

The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and lower.​*

The syslog client will send to the syslog server event messages with an identification trap level of only 4.​

 

14. What is the major release number in the IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?

2

3

15*

52

1900

 

15. What statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the &##8220;universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?

It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.

It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.

It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.

It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong cryptographic functionality.​*

 

16. What code in the Cisco IOS 15 image filename c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin indicates that the file is digitally signed by Cisco?

SPA*

universalk9

M

mz

 

17. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.

Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.

Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.

Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.*

Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.*

 

18. A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom

What is the effect of the command sequence?

On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.

The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.

The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.*

The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.

 

19. A network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a 2900 series ISR. What command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash memory as well as how much flash memory is currently available?

show flash0:*

show version

show interfaces

show startup-config

 

20. Beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is a prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?

IPBase*

DATA

UC

SEC

 

21. Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?

DATA*

IPVoice

Security*

Enterprise Services

Unified Communications*

Advanced IP Services

 

22. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

Software Claim Certificate

End User License Agreement

Unique Device Identifier

Product Activation Key*

 

23. In addition to IPBase, what are the three technology packs that are shipped within the universal Cisco IOS Software Release 15 image? (Choose three.)

Advanced IP Services

Advanced Enterprise Services

DATA*

Security*

SP Services

Unified Communications*

 

24. Which command would a network engineer use to find the unique device identifier of a Cisco router?

show version

show license udi*

show running-configuration

license install stored-location-url

 

25. Which command is used to configure a one-time acceptance of the EULA for all Cisco IOS software packages and features?

license save

show license

license boot module module-name

license accept end user agreement*

 

26. Refer to the exhibit. Match the components of the IOS image name to their description. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 9 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which method is used by a PAT-enabled router to send incoming packets to the correct inside hosts?

It uses the destination TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.*
It uses the source IP address on the incoming packet.
It uses the source TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.
It uses a combination of the source TCP or UDP port number and the destination IP address on the incoming packet.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

10.1.1.2
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network
192.168.0.100
209.165.20.25*

3 Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

NAT overload is also known as “Port Address Translation

4. A network administrator is configuring a static NAT on the border router for a web server located in the DMZ network. The web server is configured to listen on TCP port 8080. The web server is paired with the internal IP address of 192.168.5.25 and the external IP address of 209.165.200.230. For easy access by hosts on the Internet, external users do not need to specify the port when visiting the web server. Which command will configure the static NAT?

R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 80 209.165.200.230 8080
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 8080 209.165.200.230 80*
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.230 80 192.168.5.25 8080
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.230 8080 192.168.5.25 80

5. What is defined by the ip nat pool command when configuring dynamic NAT?

the pool of available NAT servers
the range of external IP addresses that internal hosts are permitted to access
the range of internal IP addresses that are translated
the pool of global address*

6. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
PAT using an external interface*
static NAT with one entry
static NAT with a NAT pool

7. What is the primary purpose of NAT?

conserve IPv4 addresses*
increase network security
allow peer-to-peer file sharing
enhance network performance

8. What is the major benefit of using NAT with Port Address Translation?

It allows external hosts access to internal servers.
It improves network performance for real-time protocols.
It allows many internal hosts to share the same public IPv4 address.*
It provides a pool of public addresses that can be assigned to internal hosts.

9. What is a characteristic of unique local addresses?

They allow sites to be combined without creating any address conflicts.*
They are designed to improve the security of IPv6 networks.
Their implementation depends on ISPs providing the service.
They are defined in RFC 3927.

10. A network administrator configures the border router with the command R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp. What is required to be configured in order for this particular command to be functional?

a NAT pool named corp that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses*
an access list named corp that defines the private addresses that are affected by NAT
an access list numbered 4 that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses
ip nat outside to be enabled on the interface that connects to the LAN affected by the NAT
a VLAN named corp to be enabled and active and routed by R1

11. Which statement describes IPv6 ULAs?

They conserve IPv6 address space.
They begin with the fe80::/10 prefix.
They are assigned by an ISP.
They are not routable across the internet.*

12. What is the purpose of port forwarding?

Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.*
Port forwarding allows users to reach servers on the Internet that are not using standard port numbers.
Port forwarding allows an internal user to reach a service on a public IPv4 address that is located outside a LAN.
Port forwarding allows for translating inside local IP addresses to outside local addresses.

13. When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?

No users can access the server.
The request to the server for the seventh user fails.*
All users can access the server.
The first user gets disconnected when the seventh user makes the request.

14. A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?

The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.*
The company needs to have more public IP addresses available to be used on the Internet.
The company router must throttle or buffer traffic because the processing power of the router is not enough to handle the normal load of external-bound Internet traffic.
The company has a small number of servers that should be accessible by clients from the Internet.

15. Match the steps with the actions that are involved when an internal host with IP address 192.168.10.10 attempts to send a packet to and external server at the IP address 209.165.200.254 across a router R1 that running dynamic NAT. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
step 5 => R1 replaces the address 192.168.10.10 with a translated inside global address.
step 2 => R1 checks the NAT configuration to determine if this packet should be translated.
step 4 => R1 selects an available global address from the dynamic address pool.
step 1 => The cost sends packets that request a connection to the server at the address 209.165.200.254
step 3 => If there is no translation entry for this IP address, R1 determines that the source address 192.168.10.10 must be translated.

16. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing.*
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated*
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

18. What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)

Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.*
Create a standard access list to define applications that should be translated.
Define the range of source ports to be used.
Identify the inside interface.*
Define the hello and interval timers to match the adjacent neighbor router.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server?

Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. *
Interface Fa0/1 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.
The IP NAT statement is incorrect.
The configuration is missing a valid access control list.

20. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.*
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network. *
It increases routing performance. It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.
It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.

21. What is an advantage of deploying IPv4 NAT technology for internal hosts in an organization?

makes internal network access easy for outside hosts using UDP
provides flexibility in designing the IPv4 addressing scheme*
increases the performance of packet transmission to the Internet
enables the easy deployment of applications that require end-to-end traceability

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

unicast DHCPACK

broadcast DHCPACK

unicast DHCPREQUEST

broadcast DHCPREQUEST*

 

 2. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255*

both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server

MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server

 

3. Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?

manual allocation

pre-allocation

automatic allocation

dynamic allocation*

 

4. Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?

client IP address

client hardware address*

gateway IP address

broadcast MAC address

 

5. As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST*

DHCPACK

 

6. What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent?

It will allow DHCPDISCOVER messages to pass without alteration.

It can forward both broadcast and multicast messages on behalf of clients.

It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services.*

It reduces the response time from a DHCP server.

 

7. An administrator issues the commands:

Router(config)# interface g0/1
Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp

What is the administrator trying to achieve?

configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server*

configuring the router to act as a relay agent

configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

 

8. Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)

The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.*

The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.

The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.

This is an ISP requirement.*

The router has a fixed IP address.

 

9. A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?​

the all-routers multicast address

the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network*

the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network

the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network

 

10. A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.

It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.

It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.*

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique.

 

11. A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?

DHCPv6 SOLICIT

DHCPv6 REQUEST

DHCPv6 ADVERTISE

DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST*

 

12. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

SLAAC

stateless DHCPv6*

stateful DHCPv6

RA and EUI-64

 

13. How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?

It sends an ARP message with the IPv6 address as the destination IPv6 address.

It checks with the IPv6 address database that is hosted by the SLAAC server.

It contacts the DHCPv6 server via a special formed ICMPv6 message.

It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.*

 

14. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface*

a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

 

15. What two methods can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC? (Choose two.)

EUI-64*

random generation*

stateful DHCPv6

DAD

ARP

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q16

SLAAC

stateful DHCPv6

stateless DHCPv6*

static link-local

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q17

Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.*

Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1.

Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag.

Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q18

No virtual link-local address is configured.

The Duplicate Address Detection feature is disabled.

The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation.

The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation*

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q19

The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated.

The router is configured for SLAAC operation.*

The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.

The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0.

 

20. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.

Type a command to exclude the first fifteen useable IP addresses from a DHCPv4 address pool of the network 10.0.15.0/24.

Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15

 

21. Order the steps of configuring a router as a DHCPv4 server. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q21

Place the options in the following order:

[+] Step 2  -> Configure a DHCP pool.
[+] Step 1  -> Exclude IP addresses.
– not scored –
[+] Step 3  ->Define the default gateway router
– not scored –

 

22. Match the descriptions to the corresponding DHCPv6 sever type. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q22

Place the options in the following order:

Stateless DHCPv6
[+] enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command
[+] clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server
[+] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command

Stateful DHCPv6
[#] the M flag is set to 1 in RA messages
[#] uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients
[#] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address dhcp command

CCNA 2 Routing and Switching Essentials v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2017

 

1. Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

management

user-generated

un tagged

tagged*

2. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number?

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number.*

An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.*

The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.

The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

3. A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

4. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

vty lines

VTP domain

loopback address*

default gateway

default VLAN*

IP address*

5. A network administrator configures a router to provide stateful DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations do not receive IPv6 addresses within the scope. Which configuration command should be checked to ensure that statefull DHCPv6 is implemented?

The dns-server line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.*

The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.

The ipv6 nd other-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.

The domain-name line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.

6. Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

Frames are forwarded without any error checking.

Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching accurs with lower latency.*

Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.

Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

7. Refer to the exhibit.

A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

10.0.0.31

172.16.12.5

172.16.12.33

192.168.1.10

172.16.25.35*

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

9. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip dhcp pool

ip address dhcp*

service dhcp

ip helper-address

 

10. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​

a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message

a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message​

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message​*

a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message​

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.*

 

12. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365*

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary.

 

13. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing.*

The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​

 

14. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Telnet

IPsec*

HTTP

ICMP

DNS

 

15. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

R1 Gi0/1.12*

R1 S0/0/0

R2 S0/0/1

R2 Gi0/1.20

inbound

outbound*

 

17. Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

destination MAC address

ICMP message type*

computer type

source TCP hello address

destination UDP port number*

 

18. A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN

in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server

in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN

in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device*

 

19. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

access list number between 1 and 99

access list number between 100 and 199*

default gateway address and wildcard mask

destination address and wildcard mask*

source address and wildcard mask*

source subnet mask and wildcard mask

destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

 

20. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

0.0.0.127

0.0.0.255

0.0.1.255*

0.0.255.255

A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

 

21. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list standard VTY

permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

 

22. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

permit ip any any

permit ip any host ip_address

permit icmp any any nd-na*

deny ip any any

 

23. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

 

24. Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

The ip route command was used.

The ipv6 route command was used.

Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.*

The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

 

25. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.

IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.

IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.

IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.*

 

26. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

child route

ultimate route

default route

level 1 parent route*

 

27. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*

ISP selection

speed of convergence*

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

 

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

directly attached static route

recursive static route*

fully specified static route

floating static route

 

29. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

 

30. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0

 

31. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

1

2

3*

4

 

32. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.

OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.*

 

33. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.

They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.

They request more information about their databases.

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.*

 

34. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.

Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

Cost equals bandwidth.

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*

 

35. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*

the type of network link*

the link next-hop IP address

the link bandwidth

the cost of that link*

 

36. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.*

The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*

The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.

The link interface subnet masks must match.*

The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

 

37. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

 

38. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*

The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

 

39. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding*

to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows

to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly

to determine which ports are functioning

 

40. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict*

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

 

41. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.

A cable has not been attached to the port.*

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.

There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

 

42. What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.

NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.

A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.*

 

43. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.*

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.

Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.​

 

44. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – trunk*

access – trunk

access – dynamic auto

 

45. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

Change the native VLAN on both ports.

Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.

Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.*

Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.

Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.*

 

46. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk*

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

 

47. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

 

48. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100

Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100

Switch(config)# no vlan 100*

 

49. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.

The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.*

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

 

50. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

All devices in all VLANs see the frame.

Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.*

Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

 

51. Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.

There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​*

The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​

 

52. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*

The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.

The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

 

53. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1*

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

 

54. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

Step 1 – Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.

Step 2 – Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.

Step 3 – Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

Step 4 – Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database

Step 5 – Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best

 

 

55. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

 

56. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains

5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains*

5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

 

57. What is a function of the distribution layer?

fault isolation

network access to the user

high-speed backbone connectivity

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*

 

58. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching*

59. Fill in the blank. In IPv6, all routes are level __1__ ultimate routes.

60. Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the __ip route__ global configuration command.

61. Fill in the blank. The OSPF Type 1 packet is the __Hello__ packet.

62. Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is __1__ .

63. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID*
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID

64. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport*

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# ip routing*

65. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0*
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

66. How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*
the lowest MAC address on an active interface

67. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

68. Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.)

69. A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?

static NAT
dynamic NAT*
port address translation

DHCP

70. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.

71. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.*
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.*
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.*
Configuration of static routes is error-free. Static routes scale well as the network grows.

72. When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair*
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration

73. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?

The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.*
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.

74. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

show processes show cdp neighbor
show access-lists*
show ip route
show running-config*

75. Refer to the exhibit.

What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?

192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22*
192.168.0.0/21

76. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses*

77. Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance*

78. Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?

flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM

79. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.*
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

80. Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?

Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
Change the administrative distance to 120.*

81. Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one for VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?

SW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.
SW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.*
SW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.

82. A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80 deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80*
permit ipv6 any any*
deny ipv6 any any

ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in*
ip access-group NoWeb in

83. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and 172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to neighbors?

router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0*
router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

84. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?

255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0*
255.255.255.224

85. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

1
5*
8
20
25
30

86. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

Flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM

87. A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect*
shutdown

88. A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this ACL?

access-group 11 in*
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

89. Refer to the exhibit.What address will summarize the LANs attached to routers 2-A and 3-A and can be configured in a summary static route to advertise them to an upstream neighbor?

10.0.0.0/24
10.0.0.0/23
10.0.0.0/22
10.0.0.0/21*

90. A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80

deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80*

deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80*

permit ipv6 any any

deny ipv6 any any*

ip access-group WebFilter in

ipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in

91. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

192.168.5.64
192.168.5.0*
192.168.0.0
No address is displayed.

92. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the interval web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board Office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implement the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed
the ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers
named ACLs requite the use of port numbers*
the ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction

93. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

1
2*
3
4
5
6

94. A router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for specific situation?

Metric*
Colour
Meter
Bread

95. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

Ipv6
OSPF
Link-access
To have only a link-local IPv6 address*
Protocol

96. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.*
Half duplex has only one channel.
All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.*

Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

97. Fill in the blank.The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network.

__VoIP__

98. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

99. Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?

S1(config-if)# mdix auto*
S1# auto-mdix S1(config-if)# auto-mdix
S1# mdix auto S1(config)# mdix auto
S1(config)# auto-mdix

100. What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured for OSPF?

Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.*
All of above
Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol

101. A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that are reachable over a TCP session
routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol*
routers that reside in the same area
routers that exchange LSAs

102. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

Address translation is working.*
Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.*
Two types of NAT are enabled.*
One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

103. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

console access –> Not Scored
full operating system –> flash
limited operating system –> ROM
routing table –> RAM
startup configuration file –> NVRAM

104. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*
Configure SSH for remote management.*
Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

105. Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

0.0.0.0
10.16.100.128*
10.16.100.2
110
791

106. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10*

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1

107. Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer
a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
a collapsed core network design*
a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

108. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

1
2
3
4
5*
6
11

109. A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for this specific situation?

routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance*

110. Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

administrative distance*
metric
outgoing interface
routing protocol

111. The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard mask?

0.0.0.31
0.0.0.255
0.0.0.127*
0.0.0.63

112. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

FF02::5*
FF02::6*
FF02::A
2001:db8:cafe::1
FF02::1:2
FE80::1*

113. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?​

65*

114. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2 LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from R1?

782
74*
128
65

115. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect
shutdown

116. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2
172.16.26.254
172.16.47.254*
172.16.48.5

117. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)

mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces*
a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is
used use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces
one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port
mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers*

118. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs as many switch ports as possible for end devices and the business is using the most common type of inter-VLAN method. What type of inter-VLAN interconnectivity is best to use between the switch and the router if R1 routes for all VLANs?

one link between the switch and the router with the router using three router subinterfaces
one link between the switch and the router with the one switch port being configured in access mode
three links between the switch and the router with the three switch ports being configured in access mode
two links between the switch and the router with the two switch ports being configured in access mode

119. A part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

120. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the internal web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

121. Refer to the exhibit. A new network policy requires an ACL denying FTP and Telnet access to a Corp file server from all interns. The address of the file server is 172.16.1.15 and all interns are assigned addresses in the 172.18.200.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, no one in the Corp network can access any of the servers. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

122. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

123. Router R1 routes traffic to the 10.10.0.0/16 network using an EIGRP learned route from Branch2. The administrator would like to install a floating static route to create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down. Which static route meets this goal?

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100***

124. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

172.16.100.64***

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 7 Exam Answers 2017

1. In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL placement?

when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound interfaces before the packets exit the interface*

when a router has more than one ACL

when an outbound ACL is closer to the source of the traffic flow

when an interface is filtered by an outbound ACL and the network attached to the interface is the source network being filtered within the ACL

 

2. Which address is required in the command syntax of a standard ACL?

source MAC address

destination MAC address

source IP address*

destination IP address

 

3. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?

In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.

Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.

Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.*

On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.

 

4. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.*

A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.*

A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE.

A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default.

Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.*

Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

 

5. What single access list statement matches all of the following networks?

192.168.16.0

192.168.17.0

192.168.18.0

192.168.19.0

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255*

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.15.255

access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255

 

6. A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23*

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0*

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

 

7. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?

4

6

8*

12

16

 

8. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)

Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.

Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.

Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.*

Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.*

Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.*

For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would be used in a standard ACL to allow only devices on the network attached to R2 G0/0 interface to access the networks attached to R1?

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.63

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.96 0.0.0.31*

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. If the network administrator created a standard ACL that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the devices on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied?

inbound on the R2 G0/0 interface

outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface*

inbound on the R1 G0/1 interface

outbound on the R2 S0/0/1 interface

 

11. Refer to the following output. What is the significance of the 4 match(es) statement?

R1# <output omitted>
10 permit 192.168.1.56 0.0.0.7
20 permit 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.63 (4 match(es))
30 deny any (8 match(es))

Four packets have been denied that have been sourced from any IP address.

Four packets have been denied that are destined for the 192.168.1.64 network.

Four packets have been allowed through the router from PCs in the network of 192.168.1.64.*

Four packets have been allowed through the router to reach the destination network of 192.168.1.64/26.

 

12. On which router should the show access-lists command be executed?

on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL to the final destination network

on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL from the source network

on any router through which the packet referenced in the ACL travels

on the router that has the ACL configured*

 

13. What is the quickest way to remove a single ACE from a named ACL?

Use the no keyword and the sequence number of the ACE to be removed.*

Use the no access-list command to remove the entire ACL, then recreate it without the ACE.

Copy the ACL into a text editor, remove the ACE, then copy the ACL back into the router.

Create a new ACL with a different number and apply the new ACL to the router interface.

 

14. Which feature will require the use of a named standard ACL rather than a numbered standard ACL?

the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol

the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination

the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic

the ability to add additional ACEs in the middle of the ACL without deleting and re-creating the list*

 

15. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in*

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out

 

16. Which type of router connection can be secured by the access-class command?

vty*

console

serial

Ethernet

 

17. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown?

R1# <output omitted>
Standard IP access list 2
10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches)
20 deny any (1 match)

Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10.x.

Traffic from one device was not allowed to come into one router port and be routed outbound a different router port.

Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.*

Traffic from two devices was allowed to enter one router port and be routed outbound to a different router port.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL was configured on R1 with the intention of denying traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0/24 into subnet 172.16.3.0/24. All other traffic into subnet 172.16.3.0/24 should be permitted. This standard ACL was then applied outbound on interface Fa0/0. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

Only traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet is blocked, and all other traffic is allowed.​

An extended ACL must be used in this situation.

The ACL should be applied to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1 inbound to accomplish the requirements.

All traffic will be blocked, not just traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet.*

The ACL should be applied outbound on all interfaces of R1.

 

20. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the access list 10 ACEs if the router is rebooted before any other commands are implemented?

The ACEs of access list 10 will be deleted.

The ACEs of access list 10 will not be affected.

The ACEs of access list 10 will be renumbered.*

The ACEs of access list 10 wildcard masks will be converted to subnet masks.

 

21. What is the effect of configuring an ACL with only ACEs that deny traffic?

The ACL will permit any traffic that is not specifically denied.

The ACL will block all traffic.*

The ACL must be applied inbound only.

The ACL must be applied outbound only.

 

22. Which type of ACL statements are commonly reordered by the Cisco IOS as the first ACEs?

host*

range

permit any

lowest sequence number

 

23. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to restrict access to certain servers in the data center. The intent is to apply the ACL to the interface connected to the data center LAN. What happens if the ACL is incorrectly applied to an interface in the inbound direction instead of the outbound direction?

All traffic is denied.

All traffic is permitted.

The ACL does not perform as designed.*

The ACL will analyze traffic after it is routed to the outbound interface.

 

24. When would a network administrator use the clear access-list counters command?

when obtaining a baseline

when buffer memory is low

when an ACE is deleted from an ACL

when troubleshooting an ACL and needing to know how many packets matched*

 

25. Match each statement with the example subnet and wildcard that it describes. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

192.168.15.65 255.255.255.240 ==> the first valid host address in a subnet
192.168.15.144 0.0.0.15 ==> subnetwork address of a subnet with 14 valid host addreses
host 192.168.15.2 ==> all IP address bits must match exactly
192.168.5.0 0.0.3.255 ==> hosts in a subnet with SM 255.255.252.0
192.168.3.64 0.0.0.7 ==> address with a subnet 255.255.255.248

 

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 6 Exam Answers 2017

1. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)

security*

a reduction in the number of trunk links

cost reduction*

end user satisfaction

improved IT staff efficiency*

no required configuration

 

2. Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?

data

default

native*

management

 

3. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​ (Choose two.)

between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs*

between a switch and a client PC

between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC*

between a switch and a network printer

between two switches that share a common VLAN

 

4. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.

Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.*

Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.

Enter the no shutdown command in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

 

5. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

unused VLAN ID

native VLAN ID*

data VLAN ID

management VLAN ID

 

6. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.

An error message would be displayed.

Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.*

VLAN 30 will be deleted.

7. Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

delete vlan.dat

delete flash:vlan.dat

no vlan 20*

no switchport access vlan 20

 

8. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

The port becomes inactive.*

The port goes back to the default VLAN.

The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.

The port creates the VLAN again.

 

9. Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.)

CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs.

VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094.

They are saved in the running-config file by default.*

VLANs are initialized from flash memory.

They are commonly used in small networks.

 

10. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?

It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.

It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.

It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.*

It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.

The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.

The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.

The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk.*

 

12. Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?

switchport nonegotiate

switchport mode dynamic auto

switchport trunk native vlan 66*

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99

 

13. What is a characteristic of legacy inter-VLAN routing?

Only one VLAN can be used in the topology.

The router requires one Ethernet link for each VLAN.*

The user VLAN must be the same ID number as the management VLAN.

Inter-VLAN routing must be performed on a switch instead of a router.

 

14. What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

does not support VLAN-tagged packets

requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing

does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs*

requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will drop the packet.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.*

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

access

trunk*

native

auto

 

17. A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?

A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.*

Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.

A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch.

A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure router-on-a-stick for the networks that are shown. How many subinterfaces will have to be created on the router if each VLAN that is shown is to be routed and each VLAN has its own subinterface?

1

2

3

4*

5

 

19. When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP address be assigned?

to the interface

to the subinterface*

to the SVI

to the VLAN

 

20. A high school uses VLAN15 for the laboratory network and VLAN30 for the faculty network. What is required to enable communication between these two VLANs while using the router-on-a-stick approach?

A multilayer switch is needed.

A router with at least two LAN interfaces is needed.

Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.

A switch with a port that is configured as a trunk is needed when connecting to the router.*

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?​

The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45.

The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.

The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.

There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*

 

22. Match the IEEE 802.1Q standard VLAN tag field with the descriptions. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
User Priority –> value that supports level or service implementation
Type –> value for the tag protocol ID value
Canonical Format Identifier –> identifier that enables Token Ring frames to be carried across Ethernet Links
– not scored – -value for the application protocol of the user data in a frame
VLAN ID –> VLAN number

 

23. Fill in the blank. Use the full command syntax.

The show vlan command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as the existing VLANs on the switch.

 

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?

PC-A, PC-B

PC-D, PC-E*

PC-A, PC-B, PC-E

PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E

PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 5 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch?

If the LED is green, the port is operating at 100 Mb/s.*

If the LED is off, the port is not operating.

If the LED is blinking green, the port is operating at 10 Mb/s.

If the LED is amber, the port is operating at 1000 Mb/s.

2. Which command is used to set the BOOT environment variable that defines where to find the IOS image file on a switch?

config-register

boot system*

boot loader

confreg

3. What is a function of the switch boot loader?

to speed up the boot process

to provide security for the vulnerable state when the switch is booting

to control how much RAM is available to the switch during the boot process

to provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be found*

4. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

VLAN 1*

Fa0/0

Fa0/1

interface connected to the default gateway

VLAN 99

5. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)

POST occurred normally.*

The boot process was interrupted.

There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.

A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.*

The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

6. Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)

Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.*

Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.

Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.

Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.

Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.*

7. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

to determine if remote access is enabled

when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host*

when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices

to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues in an Ethernet network with the command show interfaces fastEthernet 0/0. What conclusion can be drawn based on the partial output in the exhibit?

All hosts on this network communicate in full-duplex mode.

Some workstations might use an incorrect cabling type to connect to the network.

There are collisions in the network that cause frames to occur that are less than 64 bytes in length.

A malfunctioning NIC can cause frames to be transmitted that are longer than the allowed maximum length.*

9. Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.

There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.

There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.*

The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.

The interface might be configured as half-duplex.

10. If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?

on both ends of the connection

on the full-duplex end of the connection

only on serial interfaces

on the half-duplex end of the connection*

11. What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?

Telnet uses UDP as the transport protocol whereas SSH uses TCP.

Telnet does not provide authentication whereas SSH provides authentication.

Telnet supports a host GUI whereas SSH only supports a host CLI.

Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and password.*

12. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

Use SSH version 1.

Reconfigure the RSA key.

Configure SSH on a different line.

Modify the transport input command.*

13. What is the effect of using the switchport port-security command?

enables port security on an interface*

enables port security globally on the switch

automatically shuts an interface down if applied to a trunk port

detects the first MAC address in a frame that comes into a port and places that MAC address in the MAC address table

14. Where are dynamically learned MAC addresses stored when sticky learning is enabled with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?

ROM

RAM*

NVRAM

flash

15. A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?

restrict*

protect

warning

shutdown

16. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.

Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.*

The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.

After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.

If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.*

17. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?

Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.

Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.

Clear the MAC address table on the switch.

Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.*

18. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?

No one is allowed to disconnect the IP phone or the PC and connect some other wired device.
If a different device is connected, port Fa0/2 is shut down.
The switch should automatically detect the MAC address of the IP phone and the PC and add those addresses to the running configuration.

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky*

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

The port has been shut down.

The port has two attached devices.

The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.*

The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?

A notification is sent.

A syslog message is logged.

Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.*

The interface will go into error-disabled state.

21. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


Fill in the blank.
Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1? “ ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0

22. Match the step to each switch boot sequence description. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
step 3
– not scored –
step 1
step 4
step 2
step 5
step 6

23. Identify the steps needed to configure a switch for SSH. The answer order does not matter. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
[+] Create a local user.
[+] Generate RSA keys.
[+] Configure a domain name.
[+] Use the login local command.
[+] Use the transport input ssh command.
[+] Order does not matter within this group.

24. Match the link state to the interface and protocol status. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
disable -> administratively down
Layer 1 problem -> down/down
– not scored –
Layer 2 problem -> up/down
operational -> up/up