Category Archives: CCNA 3 v5

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 5 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 5 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks


A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.*

Configure the network statements.

Change the OSPFv2 process ID.

Change the interface priority.

2


Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose three.)

The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.*

There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.*

The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3

The BDR has three neighbors.

The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and the BDR.*

This interface is using the default priority.


When checking a routing table, a network technician notices the following entry:

O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0

What information can be gathered from this output?

This route is a propagated default route.*

The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.

The route is located two hops away.

The metric for this route is 110.


Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?

show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0

show ip ospf neighbor

show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0*

show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1


A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?

The dead interval will not change from the default value.

The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.

The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.

The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.*

6


Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3 but the neighbor adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the problem?

FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.

No router ID has been configured.*

A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.

The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface configuration.

7


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?

The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.*

The neighbor adjacency has formed.

R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.

When OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state do they elect a DR and BDR router?

Two-Way state*

Loading state

Init state

Exchange state

9

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.

The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.

The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.*

The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.

10


Refer to the exhibit. What kind of OSPF authentication has been configured on this interface?

null

simple

MD5*

plain text

11 
Why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication for OSPF updates?

MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.*

MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.

MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.

MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
12 
Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a signature? (Choose two.)

OSPF router ID

secret key*

router hostname

interface IP address

OSPF message*

13 
A network engineer is troubleshooting convergence and adjacency issues in an OSPFv2 network and has noted that some expected network route entries are not displayed in the routing table. Which two commands will provide additional information about the state of router adjacencies, timer intervals, and the area ID? (Choose two.)

show running-configuration

show ip ospf neighbor*

show ip ospf interface*

show ip route ospf

show ip protocols

14 
Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?

OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.*

All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.

Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.

Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.

15 
A network engineer is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most likely the problem?

A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.

The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.

A DR election has not taken place.

The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.*

16 
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two connected routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency need to be verified? (Choose two.)

Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same area.*

Verify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a DRother.

Verify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and the other passive.

Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same subnet.*

Verify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID.

17 
Which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?​

show ip protocols*

show ip ospf interface

show ip interface brief

show ip route ospf

18


Refer to the exhibit. Four routers are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of the routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?

The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.

The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.

The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.

All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.*

19


Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.

The routers have both been elected as the DR.

The routers are configured with the same router ID.*

The routers have the same priority.

20 
A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.)

no ipv6 ospf dead-interval*

no ipv6 router ospf 10

ip ospf dead-interval 40

no ipv6 ospf hello-interval*

no ipv6 ospf cost 10

ip ospf hello-interval 10

21


Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The command ” show ipv6 route ” can be issued on router R2 to verify the propagation of a static default route from R1 to R2.

22 
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
When IPv4 and OSPFv2 are being used, the command “ show ip ospf neighbor ” is used to verify that a router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers.

23

Place the options in the following order:

– not scored –

full state

loading state

ExStart state

24

Place the options in the following order: 
[+] third 
[+] second 
– not scored – 
[+] first 
[+] fourth

[+] Order does not matter within this group.

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 4 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 4 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks

1

Launch PT   Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the SSID of the connected network and which message is displayed in the browser window?

SSID: Home-Network
Message: Well done!​

SSID: Home-Network
Message: Good job!

SSID: Home-Net
Message:Congratulations! You did it!​

SSID: Home-Net
Message:Congratulations! You were able to connect it! *


A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?

Change to WPA2 authentication.

Deploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender.*

Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.

Upgrade the firmware on the AP.


Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured?

WPA

WEP*

WPA2-Personal

WPA2


Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)

RADIUS authentication server

repeater

access point*

WLAN controller

Ethernet switch*


Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?

IEEE

FCC

ITU-R

Wi-Fi Alliance*


Which feature of 802.11n wireless access points allows them to transmit data at faster speeds than previous versions of 802.11 Wi-Fi standards did?

MITM

SPS

MIMO*

WPS


Which type of wireless topology is created when two or more Basic Service Sets are interconnected by Ethernet?

ESS*

BSS

IBISS

ad hoc WLAN

WiFi Direct


If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)

1*

3

5

6*

8

11*


What type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?

Yagi

omnidirectional*

directional

dish

10 
Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)

802.11b*

802.11n*

802.11ac

802.11a

802.11g*

11 
What is the purpose of the Distributed Coordination Function in an IEEE 802.11 WLAN environment?

It is used to send data over a half-duplex connection.

It is used in a full-duplex environment to detect collisions.

It allows a client to detect whether or not a channel is clear prior to transmission.*

It allows the client to change transmission channels.

12 
An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?

rogue access point*

spoofing

cracking

denial of service

13 
During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?

encryption

authentication

discovery

association*

probing

14 
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
Ad hoc wireless topologies sometimes can use a feature called ”  tethering   ” to enable a smartphone to create a personal hotspot.

15 
What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?​

It is the best way to secure a wireless network.

Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.​*

SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.​

It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no concern.

16 
A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?

data frame

beacon frame

management frame*

control frame

17 
Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?

authentication

beacon*

probe response

probe request

18 
A company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network. Some users are complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which solution is the best method to enhance the performance of the wireless network?

Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless clients.

Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow connections.

Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands.*

Upgrade the firmware on the wireless access point.

19 
For which discovery mode will an AP generate the most traffic on a WLAN?

open mode

passive mode*

active mode

mixed mode

20 
Which statement defines the control frame operation between two stations?

After receiving a data frame, the receiving station will send an ACK frame to the sending station if no errors are found.​*

A station responds to an RTS frame with an ACK frame, thus providing permission for the requesting station to send a data frame.​

If the sending station does not receive an ACK frame within a predetermined period of time, the sending station will drop the connection.​

A station sends an RTS frame as the first step in a three-way handshake that is required before sending data frames.

21 
What is a difference between Cisco APs that operate in a home environment and Cisco APs that operate in a corporate environment?

Some corporate AP models can operate in either autonomous mode or controller-based mode.*

Controller-based APs are used in the corporate environment, and they are server-dependent devices that require an initial configuration to operate.

Autonomous APs are used only in the home environment, and they incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device.​

Cisco corporate APs do not support PoE.

22

Place the options in the following order: 
– not scored – 
MITM 
spoofed disconnct DoS 
CTS flood DoS

23

Place the options in the following order: 
– not scored – 
Step 2 
Step 5 
Step 1 
Step 3 
– not scored – 
Step 4

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 3 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 3 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks


When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?

desirable

auto

active*

passive

2

 

Place the options in the following order:

This command shows information about the status of the port involved in the Etherchannel.

– not scored –

This command shows information about the reliability of the port-channel.

This command is used to check what port channels are configured on a switch.

This command shows the list of ports involved in the port channel and the time since the ports were bundled.

What is an advantage of using LACP?

decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop

provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation

allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links*

decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel

increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices


Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?

interface port-channel interface-identifier*

interface interface-identifier

interface range interface-identifier

channel-group group-identifier

5

Launch PT  Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from Laptop0 towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)

The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.

The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.

The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.

The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.*

The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different VLANs.*


Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between two directly connected switches? (Choose three.)

speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel

VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel

domain names on the switches

7


Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

trunking

EtherChannel*

HSRP

PortFast


Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?

It requires more physical links than LACP does.

It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.

It is Cisco proprietary.*

It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.

It requires full duplex.


Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.​*

switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.​

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.​

10 
What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?

Shut down each of the affected interfaces.*

Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.

Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.

Enable each of the affected interfaces.

Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.

11 
Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)

STP

802.3ad*

EtherChannel

RSTP

PAgP*

12


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network administrator make? (Choose two.)

The EtherChannel bundle is working.

One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.*

Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is increased.

LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.

Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.

The EtherChannel bundle is not working.*

13 
Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

EtherChannel can connect up to a maximum of eight separate links.

EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.*

14 
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

active

desirable

auto*

passive

15 
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

16


Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?

Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.*

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.​

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.​

Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.​

17 
An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?​

S1-on and S2-active​

S1-passive and S2-active*

S1-passive and S2-passive​

S1-on and S2-passive

18 
What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?

aggregate ports by using EtherChannel*

insert a router between the switches

increase uplink speed

add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains

19


Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.

The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.

The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.*

The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.​

20 
Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)

destination IP to source IP

destination MAC to destination IP

source IP to destination IP*

source MAC to destination MAC*

destination IP to destination MAC

destination MAC to source MAC

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks


Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?

STP

Rapid PVST+

PVST+

MST*


Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

STP*

RSTP*

MSTP

Rapid PVST+

PVST+

3


Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?

HSRP

VRRP

GLBP*

FHRP


A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.

Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.

Link types are determined automatically.*

Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.


Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

root ports

designated ports

trunk ports

edge ports*


If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

highest IP address

lowest MAC address*

lowest IP address

highest MAC address


Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

learning

blocking

forwarding*

listening


To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

The role of the ports in all VLANs.*

The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

The number of broadcasts received on each root port.

The status of native VLAN ports.

The root bridge BID.*

9

Launch PT    Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which switch is the root bridge?​

Switch_1

Switch_2

Switch_4*

Switch_3

10 
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The spanning-tree ” mode rapid-pvst ” global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.

11 
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0*

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440

12 
Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

VRRPv2*

SLB

GLBP

HSRP

13 
Fill in the blank.
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ” virtual ” router.

14 
Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

extended system ID*

MAC address*

port ID

IP address

cost

bridge priority*

15 
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.

Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.*

Routers continually forward packets to other routers.

The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.

16 
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

redundant links between Layer 2 switches*

removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches*

link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes

static default routes

implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts

17 
What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

MAC address

VLAN ID*

port ID

IP address

18 
What is an advantage of PVST+?

PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.*

PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.

PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.

19 
What is the purpose of HSRP?

It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.

It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.*

20 
In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)

listening

learning*

forwarding*

disabled

blocking

21


Place the options in the following order: 
Step 4 
– not scored – 
Step 3 
Step 1 
Step 2

22


Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

192.168.2.0

192.168.2.1

192.168.2.2

192.168.2.100*

23 
What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.

ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.

New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.*

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 1 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 1 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks


What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

increased network management options

reduced costs*

increased flexibility*

increased bandwidth availability

decreased number of critical points of failure


A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a replacement?

a PoE device

another fixed configuration router

a modular router*

a Layer 3 switch


What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

It manages the VLAN database.

It determines the best path to send packets.*

It connects multiple IP networks.*


Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume

the installation of redundant power supplies

the use of the building switch block approach*

the use of a collapsed core design


How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?

by installing devices with failover capabilities

by deploying a collapsed core model

by organizing the network to control traffic patterns*

by limiting the size of failure domains


As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure


Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

Spanning Tree Protocol*

virtual LANs

link aggregation

virtual private networks


Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.*

They are best used as distribution layer switches.

They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.

They are modular switches.

9


Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

PC_3 and PC_2

AP_2 and AP_1

S4 and PC_2

PC_3 and AP_2*

S1 and S4

10 
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

show flash

show startup-config*

show NVRAM

show version

show running-config*

11 
A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.*

Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.

Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.

12 
Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)

at least one network interface that is connected and operational*

a terminal emulation client

a direct connection to the console port

a direct connection to the auxiliary port

Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device*

13

Place the options in the following order:

connectivity

– not scored –

identification

access remote networks

security

14 
In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management

on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility*

to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access

on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

15 
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.

They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.*

They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.

They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
16 
Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices*

to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
17 
What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.*

It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.

It uses a terminal emulation client.

18 
Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)

failure domains

services module

collapsed core

redundant power supplies*

failover capabilities*