Category Archives: CCNA 1 v5

CCNA 1 Practice Final Exam v5.02 exam answers

1. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

2. For which three reasons was a packet-switched connectionless data communications technology used when developing the Internet? (Choose three.)

It can rapidly adapt to the loss of data transmission facilities.*

It efficiently utilizes the network infrastructure to transfer data.*

Data packets can travel multiple paths through the network simultaneously.*

It allows for billing of network use by the amount of time a connection is established.

It requires that a data circuit between the source and destination be established before data can be transferred.

3. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?

DSL

dialup

satellite

leased line*

cable modem

4. What is an ISP?

It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.*

It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

5. An administrator needs to upgrade the IOS in a router to a version that supports new features. Which factor should the administrator consider before performing the upgrade?

The old IOS must be removed first.

NVRAM must be erased before the new IOS can be installed.

The new IOS might require more RAM to function properly.*

The old IOS should be backed up to NVRAM so that it is not lost during a power failure.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is attempting to connect to a new router to perform the initial configuration. The engineer connects a rollover cable from the serial port of a PC to the Aux port on the router, then configures HyperTerminal as shown. The engineer cannot get a login prompt in HyperTerminal. What would fix the problem?

Connect to the Ethernet port on the PC.

Change connection settings to even parity.

Move the cable to the router console port.*

Use a crossover cable instead of a rollover cable.

7. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco router?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

8. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to view the current configuration on this switch but receives the error message that is displayed. What does this error indicate?

The command does not exist.

One or more required keywords or arguments were omitted.

Not enough characters were entered for the interpreter to recognize the command.*

The administrator does not have the required level of access to use this command.

9. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

The banner message is too long.

The delimiting character appears in the banner message.*

The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.

Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console port.

10. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.*

This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

12. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

13. A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.

The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.

The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.*

The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

14. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

presentation layer

network layer

physical layer*

data link layer

15. Why are the paired wires twisted in a CAT5 cable?

to facilitate cable termination in the connector

to extend the signaling length

to improve the mechanical strength

to provide eletromagnetic noise cancellation*

16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

greater distances per cable run*

lower installation cost

limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI*

durable connections

greater bandwidth potential*

easily terminated

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which layer of the OSI model would format data in this way?

physical

network

data link*

transport

application

18. On a point-to-point network, which communication type is used when two devices can both transmit and receive but not at the same time?

controlled access

deterministic

full-duplex

half-duplex*

19. What three statements describe features or functions of media access control? (Choose three.)

Controlled media access involves collision handling.

It is responsible for detecting transmission errors in transmitted data.*

It uses contention-based access also known as deterministic access.

802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.

Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.*

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.*

20. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

to determine the physical address of the sending device

to verify the network layer protocol information

to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends

to check the frame for possible transmission errors*

to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

21. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?

Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address*

Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address

Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address

Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

22. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table*

forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway

utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address*

examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

23. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet switching*

microsegmentation

domain name resolution

path selection*

flow control

24. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

The IOS image is corrupt.

Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.*

The POST process has detected hardware failure.

25. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

Perform the POST routine.

Search for a backup IOS in ROM.

Load the bootstrap program from ROM.

Load the running-config file from RAM.

Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.*

26. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

to identify missing segments at the destination*

to reassemble the segments at the remote location*

to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination

to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time

to determine if the packet changed during transit

27. A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address 192.168.25.10. The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is 192.168.25.10. The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?

This is a loopback address.

This is a link-local address.

This is a private IP address.*

There is an IP address conflict.

28. Which service will translate private internal IP addresses into Internet routable public IP addresses?

ARP

DHCP

DNS

NAT*

29. Which IPv6 address notation is valid?

2001:0DB8::ABCD::1234

ABCD:160D::4GAB:FFAB

2001:DB8:0:1111::200*

2001::ABCD::

30. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface??

FEC0::/10?

FDEE::/7?

FEBF::/10*

FF00::/8?

31. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

broadcast address

global routing prefix*

subnet mask

subnet ID*

interface ID*

32. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

33. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

It sends four Echo Request messages.

It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.

It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.

It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.*

34. Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network in order to minimize address waste?

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252*

255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252

35. A network administrator has been issued a network address of 192.31.7.64/26. How many subnets of equal size could be created from the assigned /26 network by using a /28 prefix?

3

4*

6

8

14

16

36. A small satellite office has been given the overall network number of 192.168.99.0/24 and the network technician can subdivide the network addresses as needed. The office needs network access for both wired and wireless devices. However, because of the security consideration, these two networks should be separate. The wired network will have 20 devices. The wireless network has a potential connection of 45 devices. Which addressing scheme would be most efficient for these two networks?

192.168.99.0/26
192.168.99.64/27*

192.168.99.0/27
192.168.99.32/26

192.168.99.0/27
192.168.99.32/28

192.168.99.0/28
192.168.99.16/28

192.168.99.0/28
192.168.99.64/26

37. The administrator of a branch office receives an IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:3000::/52 from the corporate network manager. How many subnets can the administrator create?

1024

2048

4096*

8192

65536

38. A user is attempting to do an http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

DNS server*

WINS server

HTTP server

default gateway*

Netbios

39. Which devices should be secured to mitigate against MAC address spoofing attacks?

Layer 7 devices

Layer 4 devices

Layer 2 devices*

Layer 3 devices

40. Which router configuration mode would an administrator use to configure the router for SSH or Telnet login access?

line*

router

global

interface

privileged EXEC

41. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

Connectivity to the remote device was successful.

A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.*

A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.

The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.

42. Which is a function of the show ip route command when used as a tool for troubleshooting network connectivity?

indicates the point of failure in the connection

shows the IP address of the next hop router for each route*

lists the IP addresses of all hops the traffic will pass through to reach the destination network

shows the incoming and outgoing interfaces the traffic will go through in order to reach the destination network

43. A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the network after startup and that a popup window says “This connection has limited or no connectivity.” The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?

The workstation NIC has malfunctioned.

The subnet mask was configured incorrectly.

The DNS server IP address needs to be configured.

The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.*

44. A particular email site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

45. To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged?

The command should have been copy startup-config tftp.

The configuration should have been copied to the running configuration instead.*

The configuration changes were copied into RAM and require a reboot to take effect.

A TFTP server can only be used to restore the Cisco IOS, not the router configuration.

46. Refer to the graphic. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

It identifies the wireless LAN.

It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.

It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.

It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.*

It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

47. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

EAP

PSK

WEP*

WPA

48. Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings could be changed to improve security on the wireless network? (Choose two.)

network mode

SSID*

radio band

wide channel

standard channel

SSID broadcast*

49. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. Use lower case.

Which interface configuration mode command puts a Layer 3 switch interface into Layer 3 mode? __no switchport__

50. Fill in the blank.

A nibble consists of __4__ bits.

51. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

52. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

53. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

54. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the secret keyword that is displayed on the web page?

router

switch

frame

packet*

cisco

55. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is __winner__ .?

56. A small business user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

57. What information does the loopback test provide?

The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*

The device has end-to-end connectivity.

DHCP is working correctly.

The Ethernet cable is working correctly.

The device has the correct IP address on the network.

58. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

Request for Comments*

IRTF research papers

protocol models

IEEE standards

59. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*

Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.

Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*

Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.

Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab​les and laser technology for multimode cables.

60. What is the function of CSMA/CA in a WLAN?

It provides the mechanism for media access.*

It describes the smallest building block of the WLAN.

It assures that clients are connected to the correct WLAN.

It allows a host to move between cells without loss of signal.

61. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.*

It will forward the frame to the next host.

It will remove the frame from the media.

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

62. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

It initiates an ARP request.

It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

63. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

adjacency tables*

MAC-address tables

routing tables

ARP tables

forwarding information base (FIB)*

64. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC

source and destination application protocol

source and destination port number

source and destination IP address*

65. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.*

The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.

The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.*

66. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.

The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.*

67. What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?

sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination

determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer

requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source

synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer*

68. Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network, including the links between routers, in order to minimize address waste?

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252*

255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252

69. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

70. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to let the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST

DHCPACK*

DHCPNACK

71. Which two types of applications rely on their traffic having priority over other traffic types through the network? (Choose two.)

email

file transfer

instant messaging

video*

voice*

72. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

exec-timeout 30

service password-encryption

banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

73. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60

74. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 ITN Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

Last updated by Admin at May.

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

  • wiki
  • e-mail
  • weblog
  • instant messaging*

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

  • DSL*
  • dial-up
  • satellite
  • cell modem
  • cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

  • LAN
  • MAN
  • WAN*
  • WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS? 

  • flash memory*
  • NVRAM?
  • RAM
  • ROM
  • a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

  • a console connection
  • an AUX connection
  • a Telnet connection
  • an SSH connection*

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

  • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
  • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
  • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*
  • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

  • to restart the ping process
  • to interrupt the ping process*
  • to exit to a different configuration mode
  • to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

  • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
  • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
  • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
  • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?

  • My Switch(config)#?
  • Switch(config)#?*
  • MySwitch(config)#?
  • My(config)#?
  • Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

  • letmein
  • secretin
  • lineconin
  • linevtyin*

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
  • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

  • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
  • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
  • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.*
  • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 0.0.0.1
  • 127.0.0.1*
  • 192.168.1.1
  • 255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

  • ARP
  • DHCP*
  • DNS*
  • FTP*
  • NAT
  • PPP

16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

  • ARP
  • BOOTP
  • ICMP*
  • IP*
  • PPP

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

  • Request for Comments*
  • IRTF research papers
  • protocol models
  • IEEE standards

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

  • IP address
  • default gateway address
  • MAC address*
  • logical address

19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

  • ARP, multicast
  • DNS, unicast
  • DNS, broadcast
  • ARP, broadcast*
  • PING, multicast
  • PING, broadcast

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

  • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
  • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
  • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
  • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*
  • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

  • It accepts frames from the physical media.
  • It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
  • It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
  • It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.*

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

  • requiring proper grounding connections
  • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*
  • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
  • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
  • avoiding sharp bends during installation

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

  • Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*
  • Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
  • Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*
  • Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
  • Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

  • logical address
  • physical address
  • data
  • error detection*

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

  • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
  • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
  • crossover Ethernet cable connection*
  • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
  • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

  • just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*
  • just the PC0 MAC address
  • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
  • just the PC1 MAC address
  • just the PC2 MAC address?

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

  • A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
  • An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.*
  • A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
  • A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

  • to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
  • to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*
  • to convert a URL name into an IP address
  • to provide secure Internet file transfer
  • to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

  • ARP
  • DNS
  • NAT*
  • SMB
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*
  • It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
  • It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

  • packet switching*
  • microsegmentation
  • domain name resolution
  • path selection*
  • flow control

32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

  • ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
  • FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
  • RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.*
  • NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
  • ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.*

33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

  • NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
  • NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode*
  • setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
  • TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
  • flash, ROM, setup mode

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

  • 10.172.168.1*
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.20.4.4*
  • 192.168.5.254*
  • 224.6.6.6

36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

  • 4
  • 8
  • 16*
  • 32

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

  • to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
  • to enable the router as an IPv6 router*
  • to permit only unicast packets on the router
  • to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?

  • FEC0::/10?
  • FDFF::/7?
  • FEBF::/10?
  • FF00::/8*

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

  • to inform routers about network topology changes
  • to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
  • to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*
  • to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

  • The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
  • The default gateway address in incorrect.*
  • The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
  • The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

  • 192.168.1.64/26*
  • 192.168.1.32/27
  • 192.168.1.32/28
  • 192.168.1.64/29

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

  • random static addresses to improve security
  • addresses from different subnets for redundancy
  • predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*
  • dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

  • Site 1
  • Site 2*
  • Site 3
  • Site 4

44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

  • /62
  • /64*
  • /66
  • /68*
  • /70

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

  • DHCPDISCOVER*
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPREQUEST*
  • DHCPACK
  • DHCPNACK

46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

  • to require users to prove who they are
  • to determine which resources a user can access
  • to keep track of the actions of a user*
  • to provide challenge and response questions

47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

  • exec-timeout 30
  • service password-encryption
  • banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
  • login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

  • ipconfig /all
  • arp -a
  • ipconfig /displaydns*
  • nslookup

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

  • 192.168.9.254
  • 192.168.10.1
  • 192.168.10.2
  • 192.168.11.252*
  • 192.168.11.254

50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

  • broadcast SSID*
  • MAC filtering enabled
  • WEP encryption enabled
  • PSK authentication required
  • default administrator password*

52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP       is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

  • media
  • wireless NIC*
  • custom adapter
  • crossover cable
  • wireless bridge
  • wireless client software*

55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is            /60       .

56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

  • Stage 1 – perform the post
  • Stage 2 – load the bootstrap program
  • Stage 3 – Locate and load the Cisco IOS
  • Stage 4 – locate and load the configuration file

 

57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

  • when a cellular telephone provides the service
  • when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
  • when a satellite dish is used
  • when a regular telephone line is used*

59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

  • audio conference, database, HTTP*
  • database, HTTP, audio conference
  • audio conference, HTTP, database
  • database, audio conference, HTTP

60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

  • RAM*
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • disk drive

61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

  • a console connection
  • an AUX connection
  • a Telnet connection
  • an SSH connection*

62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

  • Ctrl-Shift-X
  • Ctrl-Shift-6*
  • Ctrl-Z
  • Ctrl-C

63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

  • HR Switch(config)#?
  • Switch(config)#?*
  • HRSwitch(config)#?
  • HR(config)#?
  • Switch#

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
  • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

  • FastEthernet0/1
  • VLAN 1*
  • vty 0
  • console 0

66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

  • the TCP/IP stack on a network host*
  • connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
  • connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
  • connectivity between two PCs on the same network
  • physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

  • switch
  • hub
  • router*
  • host

69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

  • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
  • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
  • the type of traffic that is crossing the network*
  • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
  • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
  • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

  • It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*
  • Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
  • It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
  • It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
  • It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling*

71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

  • It is straightforward to troubleshoot.*
  • End devices are connected together by a bus.
  • It is easy to add and remove end devices.*
  • All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
  • Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

  • to determine the physical address of the sending device
  • to verify the network layer protocol information
  • to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
  • to check the frame for possible transmission errors*
  • to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

  • It initiates an ARP request.
  • It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
  • It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
  • It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

  • cut-through
  • store-and-forward
  • fragment-free
  • fast-forward*

75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

  • the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network*
  • the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
  • the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
  • the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

  • stores routing tables
  • allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
  • maintains instructions for POST diagnostics*
  • holds ARP cache
  • stores bootstrap program*

77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

  • A console port is used for remote management of the router.
  • A console port is not used for packet forwarding.*
  • Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
  • Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

  • 192.0.2.199
  • 198.51.100.201
  • 203.0.113.211*
  • 209.165.201.223

80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

  • 10.20.30.1*
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.30.5.3*
  • 192.168.5.5*
  • 224.6.6.6

81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

  • private addresses
  • public addresses*
  • multicast addresses
  • experimental addresses

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

  • 11
  • 12
  • 13*
  • 14

83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

  • 192.168.1.16/28
  • 192.168.1.64/27*
  • 192.168.1.128/27
  • 192.168.1.96/28*
  • 192.168.1.192/28

84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

  • /23
  • /24
  • /25*
  • /26

85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

  • Transmission Control Protocol
  • Real-Time Transport Protocol*
  • Secure File Transfer Protocol
  • Video over Internet Protocol

86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

  • to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
  • to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
  • to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*
  • to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

  • The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
  • The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.*
  • An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
  • An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

89. Fill in the blank.

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as       full-duplex         .

90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

  • area A
  • area B
  • area C*
  • area D

93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

  • to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
  • to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
  • to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
  • to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

  • audio conference, financial transactions, web page*
  • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
  • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
  • financial transactions, audio conference, web page

95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

  • RAM*
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • disk drive

96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

  • The configuration will be copied to flash.
  • The configuration will load when the router is restarted.*
  • The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
  • The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

97. What information does the loopback test provide?

  • The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*
  • The device has end-to-end connectivity.
  • DHCP is working correctly.
  • The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
  • The device has the correct IP address on the network.

98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

  • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
  • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
  • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*
  • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

  • CSMA/CD
  • priority ordering
  • CSMA/CA*
  • token passing

100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

  • The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
  • The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
  • The switch drops the frame.*
  • The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 255.255.255.255
  • FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

  • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
  • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection*
  • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
  • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

  • cut-through switching
  • store-and-forward switching*
  • fragment-free switching
  • fast-forward switching

104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

  • adjacency tables
  • MAC-address tables
  • routing tables*
  • ARP tables*
  • forwarding information base (FIB)

105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

  • It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
  • It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward*
  • the destination host.*
  • It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
  • It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

  • ARP
  • DNS
  • NAT*
  • SMB
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

  • The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.
  • The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.
  • The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.*
  • The gateway of last resort was not configured.

108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

  • TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*
  • TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
  • UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
  • TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*
  • TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?

  • the destination IP address
  • the destination port number*
  • the source IP address
  • the source port number

111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

  • Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.*
  • A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
  • A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
  • Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

  • MAC address
  • IP address*
  • kernel
  • shell
  • subnet mask*

113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

  • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
  • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*
  • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*
  • Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*
  • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
  • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

  • It eliminates most address configuration errors.*
  • It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
  • It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
  • It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
  • It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

  • 2001:DB8:BC15::0
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

  • compression*
  • addressing
  • encryption*
  • session control
  • authentication

117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

  • to require users to prove who they are*
  • to determine which resources a user can access
  • to keep track of the actions of a user
  • to provide challenge and response questions

118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

119. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a         Multicast                    message.

120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

121. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is .​ ”   winner   ”

122. A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?

  • This entry refers to the PC itself.
  • This entry maps to the default gateway.
  • This is a static map entry.*
  • This is a dynamic map entry.

123. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

  • Packet Length
  • Destination Address*
  • Flag
  • Time-to-Live

124. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?

  • 2001:db8:abc:1::1
  • 2001:db8:abc:5::1  *
  • 2001:db8:abc:5::2
  • 2001:db8:abc:10::15

Updated May 25, 2015 (62 new question)

1. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page*

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions

financial transactions, audio conference, web page

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin*

lineconin

linevtyin

3. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

error correction through a collision detection method

session control using port numbers

data link layer addressing*

placement and removal of frames from the media

detection of errors through CRC calculations*

delimiting groups of bits into frames*

conversion of bits into data signals

4. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?

Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.

Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.

CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.*

Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).

5. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?

to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)

to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses*

to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making

to update the forwarding information base (FIB)

6. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?

It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.

In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.

When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.

Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one host to another.*

7. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?

Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.

ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can be used on the Internet.*

ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that can be used on the Internet.

Both users must be on the same network.

8. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local*

unique local

site local

global unicast

9. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

to ensure the fastest possible download speed

because HTTP is a best-effort protocol

because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

because HTTP requires reliable delivery*

10. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

10111010

11010101

11001010*

11011010

11. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*

2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

2001:DB8::AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​

11

12

13*

14

13. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

TTL field

CRC field

Hop Limit field*

Time Exceeded field

14. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

15. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

port filtering

stateful packet inspection*

URL filtering

application filtering

16. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to the remote host?

trace 10.1.1.5

traceroute 10.1.1.5

tracert 10.1.1.5*

ping 10.1.1.5

17. Fill in the blank.

To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be      grounded        correctly

18. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

19. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?

The cable insulation could be flammable.*

Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.

Network cables could be exposed to water.

The network cable could explode.

20. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?

a multimeter

an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer

a cable tester*

an ohmmeter

21. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?

capacitance

wire map*

inductance

flexibility

22. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*

just the PC0 MAC address

PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

just the PC1 MAC address

just the PC2 MAC address​

23. Which function is provided by TCP?

data encapsulation

detection of missing packets*

communication session control

path determination for data packets

24. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?

an ARP table

a routing table*

the destination PC physical address

a switching table

25. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?

an inband router interface

a console port

a serial WAN interface

an AUX port*

26. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

user executive mode

global configuration mode

any line configuration mode*

privileged EXEC mode

27. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

28. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

2

21

250

306*

2921

29. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?

IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.

A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.*

A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.

Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

subnet mask

DNS address

host IP address

default gateway address*

31. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

172.16.16.255

172.16.20.255

172.16.19.255*

172.16.23.255

172.16.255.255

32. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/29********

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28

33. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?

2

3

4*

5

6

34. A  logical    topology influences the type of network framing and media access control that will be used.

35. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a password.

Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will require authentication.*

Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.

Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.

36. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?

It will remove encryption from all passwords.

It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.​

It will not reverse any encryption.*

It will reverse only the enable password encryption.

37. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

38. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

39. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

store-and-forward switching

fast-forward switching*

CRC switching

fragment-free switching*

QOS switching

40. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)

Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.

A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to it.*

An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.

An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.

Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.*

41. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

to identify the broadcast address of the destination network

to identify the host address of the destination host

to identify faulty frames

to identify the network address of the destination network*

42. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

234.17.10.9

234.16.12.10

236.17.12.6

236.17.12.10*

43. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

44. Fill in the blank.

Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide the flexibility to add new modules have a   Modular    configuration.

45.


Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?

11

12

13*

14

46. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the networK.*

A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREOUEST message.

The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and sub net masK to be assigned, the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default gateway.

If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a unicast DHCPREOUEST message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP information.

47. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

EAP
PSK
WEP*
WPA

48. A network administrator notices that the throughput on the network appears lower than expected when compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which three factors can
explain this difference? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic*
the type of data encapsulation in use
the type of traffic*
the number and type of network devices that the data is crossing*
the bandwidth of the connection to the ISP
the reliability of the network backbone

49. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER*
DHCPPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK

50. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses console line to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

51. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation*
cladding
immunity to electrical hazards
woven copper braid or metallic foil

52. How many bits would need to be borrowed if a network admin were given the IP addressing scheme of 172.16.0.0/16 and needed no more than 16 subnet with equal number of hosts?

10
12
2
4*
8

53. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

54.

It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is: The PC2 will be able to ping 192.168.1.1*

55. Which statement best describes the operation of the File Transfer Protocol?

An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP server uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

 56. A client is establishing a TCP session with a server. How is the acknowledgment number in the response segment to the client determined?

The acknowledgment number field is modified by adding 1 to the randomly chosen initial sequence number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an acknowledgment packet and synchronization packet back to the client.
The acknowledgment number field uses a random source port number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an acknowledgment packet back to the client.

57. Why does layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP and subnet Mask?

to identify host address and destination host;
to identify network address of destination host;
to identify faulty frames;
to identify broadcast address of destination network;

58. There was also a question about if you activated service password encryption in the past and you prompt “no service password encryption” what password are modified ?

no password at all;
password of the lines are in clear;
login password;
?

59. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

message encapsulation
flow control
message encoding
access method

60. What is the primary reason to subnet IPv6 prefixes?
to conserve IPv6 addresses
to avoid wasting IPv6 addresses
to conserve IPv6 prefixes
to create a hierarchical Layer 3 network design

61. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
multicast
global unicast
link-local
loopback

62. Which statement describes data throughput?
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media under perfect conditions.
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.
It indicates the capacity of a particular medium to carry data.
It is the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP.

CCNA 1 v5.0 + v5.02 + v5.03 ITN Final Exam Answers 2016

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

wiki

e-mail

weblog

instant messaging*

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

LAN

MAN

WAN*

WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS? 

flash memory*

NVRAM?

RAM

ROM

a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*

The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

to restart the ping process

to interrupt the ping process*

to exit to a different configuration mode

to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.

It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.

It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?

My Switch(config)#?

Switch(config)#?*

MySwitch(config)#?

My(config)#?

Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin

linevtyin*

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.

PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.*

PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

0.0.0.0

0.0.0.1

127.0.0.1*

192.168.1.1

255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

ARP

DHCP*

DNS*

FTP*

NAT

PPP

16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

ARP

BOOTP

ICMP*

IP*

PPP

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

Request for Comments*

IRTF research papers

protocol models

IEEE standards

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

IP address

default gateway address

MAC address*

logical address

19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

ARP, multicast

DNS, unicast

DNS, broadcast

ARP, broadcast*

PING, multicast

PING, broadcast

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

It accepts frames from the physical media.

It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.

It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.

It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.*

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

requiring proper grounding connections

twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*

wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding

designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference

avoiding sharp bends during installation

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*

Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.

Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*

Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.

Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

logical address

physical address

data

error detection*

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a

crossover Ethernet cable connection*

the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable

the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*

just the PC0 MAC address

PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

just the PC1 MAC address

just the PC2 MAC address?

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.

An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.*

A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.

A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network

to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*

to convert a URL name into an IP address

to provide secure Internet file transfer

to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

ARP

DNS

NAT*

SMB

DHCP

HTTP

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*

It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet switching*

microsegmentation

domain name resolution

path selection*

flow control

32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.

FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.

RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.*

NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.

ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.*

33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

NVRAM, RAM, TFTP

NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode*

setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP

TFTP, ROM, NVRAM

flash, ROM, setup mode

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.

The entire transmission is re-sent.

The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.172.168.1*

172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.20.4.4*

192.168.5.254*

224.6.6.6

36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

4

8

16*

32

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

to enable the router as an IPv6 router*

to permit only unicast packets on the router

to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?

FEC0::/10?

FDFF::/7?

FEBF::/10?

FF00::/8*

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

The DNS server addresses are incorrect.

The default gateway address in incorrect.*

The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.

The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

random static addresses to improve security

addresses from different subnets for redundancy

predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*

dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

Site 1

Site 2*

Site 3

Site 4

44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

/62

/64*

/66

/68*

/70

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

DHCPDISCOVER*

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST*

DHCPACK

DHCPNACK

46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

to require users to prove who they are

to determine which resources a user can access

to keep track of the actions of a user*

to provide challenge and response questions

47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

exec-timeout 30

service password-encryption

banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

192.168.9.254

192.168.10.1

192.168.10.2

192.168.11.252*

192.168.11.254

50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

broadcast SSID*

MAC filtering enabled

WEP encryption enabled

PSK authentication required

default administrator password*

52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

EAP

PSK

WEP

WPA*

53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP       is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

media

wireless NIC*

custom adapter

crossover cable

wireless bridge

wireless client software*

55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is            /60       .

56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

Stage 1 – perform the post

Stage 2 – load the bootstrap program

Stage 3 – Locate and load the Cisco IOS

Stage 4 – locate and load the configuration file

 

57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

when a cellular telephone provides the service

when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network

when a satellite dish is used

when a regular telephone line is used*

59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

audio conference, database, HTTP*

database, HTTP, audio conference

audio conference, HTTP, database

database, audio conference, HTTP

60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

RAM*

flash

NVRAM

disk drive

61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

Ctrl-Shift-X

Ctrl-Shift-6*

Ctrl-Z

Ctrl-C

63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

HR Switch(config)#?

Switch(config)#?*

HRSwitch(config)#?

HR(config)#?

Switch#

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

FastEthernet0/1

VLAN 1*

vty 0

console 0

66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

the TCP/IP stack on a network host*

connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices

connectivity between a PC and the default gateway

connectivity between two PCs on the same network

physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

switch

hub

router*

host

69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*

Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.

It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.

It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.

It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling*

71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

It is straightforward to troubleshoot.*

End devices are connected together by a bus.

It is easy to add and remove end devices.*

All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.

Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

to determine the physical address of the sending device

to verify the network layer protocol information

to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends

to check the frame for possible transmission errors*

to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

It initiates an ARP request.

It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

cut-through

store-and-forward

fragment-free

fast-forward*

75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network*

the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network

the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network

the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

stores routing tables

allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard

maintains instructions for POST diagnostics*

holds ARP cache

stores bootstrap program*

77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

A console port is used for remote management of the router.

A console port is not used for packet forwarding.*

Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.

Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.

The entire transmission is re-sent.

The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

192.0.2.199

198.51.100.201

203.0.113.211*

209.165.201.223

80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.20.30.1*

172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.30.5.3*

192.168.5.5*

224.6.6.6

81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

private addresses

public addresses*

multicast addresses

experimental addresses

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

11

12

13*

14

83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.16/28

192.168.1.64/27*

192.168.1.128/27

192.168.1.96/28*

192.168.1.192/28

84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

/23

/24

/25*

/26

85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

Transmission Control Protocol

Real-Time Transport Protocol*

Secure File Transfer Protocol

Video over Internet Protocol

86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

to determine the active TCP connections on a PC

to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server

to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*

to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.

The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.*

An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.

An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

EAP

PSK

WEP

WPA*

89. Fill in the blank.

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as     __full-duplex__         .

90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

area A

area B

area C*

area D

93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices

to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally

to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page*

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions

financial transactions, audio conference, web page

95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

RAM*

flash

NVRAM

disk drive

96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

The configuration will be copied to flash.

The configuration will load when the router is restarted.*

The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.

The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

97. What information does the loopback test provide?

The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*

The device has end-to-end connectivity.

DHCP is working correctly.

The Ethernet cable is working correctly.

The device has the correct IP address on the network.

98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.

It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*

It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

CSMA/CD

priority ordering

CSMA/CA*

token passing

100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.

The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.

The switch drops the frame.*

The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

0.0.0.0

255.255.255.255

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*

127.0.0.1

01-00-5E-00-AA-23

102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection*

the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable

the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

cut-through switching

store-and-forward switching*

fragment-free switching

fast-forward switching

104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

adjacency tables*

MAC-address tables

routing tables

ARP tables

forwarding information base (FIB)*

105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.

It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward the destination host.*

It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.

It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

ARP

DNS

NAT*

SMB

DHCP

HTTP

107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.

The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.

The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.*

The gateway of last resort was not configured.

108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.

The entire transmission is re-sent.

The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?

the destination IP address

the destination port number*

the source IP address

the source port number

111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.*

A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.

A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.

Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

MAC address

IP address*

kernel

shell

subnet mask*

113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*

Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*

Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

It eliminates most address configuration errors.*

It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.

It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.

It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.

It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

2001:DB8:BC15::0

2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*

2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1

2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

compression*

addressing

encryption*

session control

authentication

117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

to require users to prove who they are*

to determine which resources a user can access

to keep track of the actions of a user

to provide challenge and response questions

118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

EAP

PSK

WEP

WPA*

119. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a         Multicast            message.

120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

121. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is .​ ”   winner   ”

122. A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?

This entry refers to the PC itself.

This entry maps to the default gateway.

This is a static map entry.*

This is a dynamic map entry.

123. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

Packet Length

Destination Address*

Flag

Time-to-Live

124. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?

2001:db8:abc:1::1

2001:db8:abc:5::1  *

2001:db8:abc:5::2

2001:db8:abc:10::15

125. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page*

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions

financial transactions, audio conference, web page

126. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin*

lineconin

linevtyin

127. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

error correction through a collision detection method

session control using port numbers

data link layer addressing*

placement and removal of frames from the media

detection of errors through CRC calculations*

delimiting groups of bits into frames*

conversion of bits into data signals

128. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?

Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.

Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.

CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.*

Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).

129. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?

to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)

to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses*

to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making

to update the forwarding information base (FIB)

130. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?

It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.

In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.

When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.

Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one host to another.*

131. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?

Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.

ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can be used on the Internet.*

ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that can be used on the Internet.

Both users must be on the same network.

132. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local*

unique local

site local

global unicast

133. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

to ensure the fastest possible download speed

because HTTP is a best-effort protocol

because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

because HTTP requires reliable delivery*

134. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

10111010

11010101

11001010*

11011010

135. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*

2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

2001:DB8::AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

136. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​

11

12

13*

14

137. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

TTL field

CRC field

Hop Limit field*

Time Exceeded field

138. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

139. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

port filtering

stateful packet inspection*

URL filtering

application filtering

140. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to the remote host?

trace 10.1.1.5

traceroute 10.1.1.5

tracert 10.1.1.5*

ping 10.1.1.5

141. Fill in the blank.

To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be      grounded        correctly

142. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

143. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?

The cable insulation could be flammable.*

Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.

Network cables could be exposed to water.

The network cable could explode.

144. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?

a multimeter

an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer

a cable tester*

an ohmmeter

145. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?

capacitance

wire map*

inductance

flexibility

146. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*

just the PC0 MAC address

PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

just the PC1 MAC address

just the PC2 MAC address​

147. Which function is provided by TCP?

data encapsulation

detection of missing packets*

communication session control

path determination for data packets

148. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?

an ARP table

a routing table*

the destination PC physical address

a switching table

149. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?

an inband router interface

a console port

a serial WAN interface

an AUX port*

150. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

user executive mode

global configuration mode

any line configuration mode*

privileged EXEC mode

151. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

152. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

2

21

250

306*

2921

153. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?

IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.

A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.*

A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.

Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

154. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

subnet mask

DNS address

host IP address

default gateway address*

155. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

172.16.16.255

172.16.20.255

172.16.19.255*

172.16.23.255

172.16.255.255

156. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/29********

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28

157. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?

2

3

4*

5

6

 

158. A  logical    topology influences the type of network framing and media access control that will be used.

159. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a password.

Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will require authentication.*

Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.

Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.

160. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?

It will remove encryption from all passwords.

It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.​

It will not reverse any encryption.*

It will reverse only the enable password encryption.

161. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

162. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

163. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

store-and-forward switching

fast-forward switching*

CRC switching

fragment-free switching*

QOS switching

164. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)

Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.

A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to it.*

An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.

An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.

Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.*

165. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

to identify the broadcast address of the destination network

to identify the host address of the destination host

to identify faulty frames

to identify the network address of the destination network*

166. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

234.17.10.9

234.16.12.10

236.17.12.6

236.17.12.10*

167. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

168. Fill in the blank.

Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide the flexibility to add new modules have a   Modular    configuration.

169.


Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?

11

12

13*

14

170. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the networK.*

A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREOUEST message.

The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and sub net masK to be assigned, the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default gateway.

If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a unicast DHCPREOUEST message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP information.

171. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

EAP
PSK
WEP*
WPA

172. A network administrator notices that the throughput on the network appears lower than expected when compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which three factors can
explain this difference? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic*
the type of data encapsulation in use
the type of traffic*
the number and type of network devices that the data is crossing*
the bandwidth of the connection to the ISP
the reliability of the network backbone

173. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER*
DHCPPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK

174. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses console line to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

175. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation*
cladding
immunity to electrical hazards
woven copper braid or metallic foil

176. How many bits would need to be borrowed if a network admin were given the IP addressing scheme of 172.16.0.0/16 and needed no more than 16 subnet with equal number of hosts?

10
12
2
4*
8

177. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

178. Which statement best describes the operation of the File Transfer Protocol?

An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP server uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.*

An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

179.  A client is establishing a TCP session with a server. How is the acknowledgment number in the response segment to the client determined?

The acknowledgment number field is modified by adding 1 to the randomly chosen initial sequence number in response to the client.*
The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an acknowledgment packet and synchronization packet back to the client.
The acknowledgment number field uses a random source port number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an acknowledgment packet back to the client.

180. Why does layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP and subnet Mask?

to identify host address and destination host
to identify network address of destination host*
to identify faulty frames
to identify broadcast address of destination network

181. There was also a question about if you activated service password encryption in the past and you prompt “no service password encryption” what password are modified ?

no password at all*
password of the lines are in clear
login password
?

182. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

message encapsulation
flow control
message encoding
access method*

183. What is the primary reason to subnet IPv6 prefixes?
to conserve IPv6 addresses
to avoid wasting IPv6 addresses
to conserve IPv6 prefixes
to create a hierarchical Layer 3 network design*

184. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
multicast
global unicast
link-local*
loopback

185. Which statement describes data throughput?
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media under perfect conditions.
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.*
It indicates the capacity of a particular medium to carry data.
It is the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP.

186. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
IPv4 multicast addresses are directly mapped to IEEE 802 (Ethernet) MAC addresses using the last ___4___ of the 28 available bits in the IPv4 multicast group address.

187. How could a faulty network device create a source of hazard for a user? (Choose two.)

It could stop functioning.*
It could apply dangerous voltage to other pieces of equipment.
It could explode.*
It could produce an unsafe electromagnetic field.
It could apply dangerous voltage to itself.

188. What are three important considerations when planning the structure of an IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.)

preventing duplication of addresses*
providing and controlling access*
documenting the network
monitoring security and performance
conserving addresses*
implementing new services

189. What is the metric value that is used to reach the 10.1.1.0 network in the following routing table entry?

D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0

24
90
05
2170112*

190. Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission and low overhead? (Choose two)

VoIP*
DNS*
HTTP
FTP
POP3

191. What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers?

It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is accepting.*
It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process over again.
It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.
It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.

192. To what legacy address class does the address 10.0.0.0 belong?

Class B
Class D
Class A*
Class C
Class E

193. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?

radio waves
fiber
microwave*
UTP

194. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

EUI-64
static
SLAAC*
stateful DHCPv6

195. What is a characteristic of DNS?

DNS servers can cache recent queries to reduce DNS query traffic.*

DNS servers are programmed to drop requests for name translations that are not within their zone.

All DNS servers must maintain mappings for the entire DNS structure.

DNS relies on a hub-and-spoke topology with centralized servers.

196. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

2001:DB8:BC15

2001:DB8:BC15:A*

2001:DB8:BC15:A:1

2001:DB8:BC15:A:12

197. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)

collision detection

placement of frames on the media

performing error detection

encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer*

routing packets toward the destination*

198.

It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is: The PC2 will be able to ping 192.168.1.1*

199. What information is maintained in the CEF adjacency table?

Layer 2 next hops

MAC address to IPv4 address mappings

IP address to interface mappings

the IP addresses of all neighboring routers

CCNA 1 v5 ITN Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer 2014

CCNA1 v5 ITN Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer

 (Introduction to Networks)

<<Download File .PKA>>

You will practice and be assessed on the following skills:

  • Configuration of initial IOS device settings
  • Design and calculation of IPv4 addressing
  • Configuration of IOS device interfaces including IPv4 and IPv6 addressing when appropriate
  • Addressing of network hosts with IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
  • Enhancing device security, including configuration of the secure transport protocol for remote device configuration
  • Configuration of a switch management interface

Requirements by device:

  • Town Hall router:
  • Configuration of initial router settings
  • Interface configuration and IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
  • Device security enhancement or “device hardening”
  • Secure transport for remote configuration connections as covered in the labs.
  • Backup of the configuration file to a TFTP server
  • Administration Switch:
  • Enabling basic remote management by Telnet
  • PC and Server hosts:
  • IPv4 full addressing
  • IPv6 addressing

ccna1 skill final

cap1-skill

Step 1:

Design an IPv4 addressing scheme and complete the Addressing Table based on the following requirements. Use the table above to help you organize your work.

a. Subnet the 192.168.1.0/24 network to provide 30 host addresses per subnet while wasting the fewest addresses.

b. Assign the fourth subnet to the IT Department LAN.

c. Assign the last network host address (the highest) in this subnet to the G0/0 interface on Town Hall.

d. Starting with the fifth subnet, subnet the network again so that the new subnets will provide 14 host addresses per subnet while wasting the fewest addresses.

e. Assign the second of these new 14-host subnets to the Administration LAN.

f. Assign the last network host address (the highest) in the Administration LAN subnet to the G0/1 interface of the Town Hall router.

g. Assign the second to the last address (the second highest) in this subnet to the VLAN 1 interface of the Administration Switch.

h. Configure addresses on the hosts using any of the remaining addresses in their respective subnets.

Step 2: Configure the Town Hall Router.

a. Configure the Town Hall router with all initial configurations that you have learned in the course so far:

· Configure the router hostname: Middle

· Protect device configurations from unauthorized access with the encrypted password.

· Secure all of the ways to access the router using methods covered in the course and labs.

· Newly-entered passwords must have a minimum length of 10 characters.

· Prevent all passwords from being viewed in clear text in device configuration files.

· Configure the router to only accept in-band management connections over the protocol that is more secure than Telnet, as was done in the labs. Use the value 1024 for encryption key strength.

· Configure user authentication for in-band management connections.

b. Configure the two Gigabit Ethernet interfaces using the IPv4 addressing values you calculated and the IPv6 values provided in the addressing table.

· Reconfigure the link local addresses as was practiced in the labs. The IPv6 link-local Interface ID should match the IPv6 unicast Interface ID as is practiced in the labs.

· Document the interfaces in the configuration file.

Step 3: Configure the Administration Switch.

Configure Administration Switch for remote management.

Step 4: Configure and Verify Host Addressing.

a. Use the IPv4 addressing from Step 1 and the IPv6 addressing values provided in the addressing table to configure all host PCs with the correct addressing.

b. Use the router interface link-local addresses as the IPv6 default gateways on the hosts.

c. All hosts should be able to ping each other over IPv4.

Step 5: Backup the Configuration of the Town Hall Router to TFTP.

a. Complete the configuration of the TFTP server using the IPv4 addressing values from Step 1 and the values in the addressing table.

b. Backup the running configuration of Town Hall to the TFTP Server. Use the default file name.

Answer

Router>
Router>enable
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#interface g0/0
Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.126 255.255.255.224
Router(config-if)#description IT Department LAN
Router(config-if)#no shutdown
Router(config-if)#exit
Router(config)#interface g0/1
Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.158 255.255.255.240
Router(config-if)#description Administration LAN
Router(config-if)#no shutdown
Router(config-if)#exit
Router(config)#ipv6 unicast-routing
Router(config)#interface g0/0
Router(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8:acad:A::1/64
Router(config-if)#ipv6 address FE80::1 link-local
Router(config-if)#no shutdown
Router(config-if)#exit
Router(config)#interface g0/1
Router(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8:acad:B::1/64
Router(config-if)#ipv6 address FE80::1 link-local
Router(config-if)#no shutdown
Router(config-if)#exit

Router(config)#
Router(config)#hostname Middle
Middle(config)#Enable secret class12345
Middle(config)#line console 0
Middle(config-line)#password cisconet2014
Middle(config-line)#login
Middle(config-line)#exit
Middle(config)#line vty 0 15
Middle(config-line)#password cisconet2014
Middle(config-line)#login
Middle(config-line)#exit
Middle(config)#line aux 0
Middle(config-line)#password cisconet2014
Middle(config-line)#login
Middle(config-line)#exit
Middle(config)#
Middle(config)#Banner motd “Authorized Access Only”
Middle(config)#security password min-length 10
Middle(config)#service password-encryption
Middle(config)#ip domain-name ccna5.net
Middle(config)#username cisco secret cisconet2014
Middle(config)#crypto key generate rsa
The name for the keys will be: Middle.cisco.local
Choose the size of the key modulus in the range of 360 to 2048 for your
General Purpose Keys. Choosing a key modulus greater than 512 may take
a few minutes.

How many bits in the modulus [512]: 1024
% Generating 1024 bit RSA keys, keys will be non-exportable…[OK]

Middle(config)#line vty 0 15
Middle(config-line)#login local
Middle(config-line)#transport input ssh
Middle(config-line)#exit
Middle(config)#

—————————————–
Switch1 ip default gateway 192.168.1.158

—————————————–

Reception Host
default gateway FE80::1
default gateway 192.168.1.126

IP address 192.168.1.97/27
IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::FF/64

—————————————–

Operator Host

default gateway FE80::1
default gateway 192.168.1.126

IP address 192.168.1.98/27
IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::15/64

—————————————–

IT Host

default gateway FE80::1
default gateway 192.168.1.158

IP address 192.168.1.145/28
IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:B::FF/64

—————————————–

SERVER TFTP

default gateway FE80::1
default gateway 192.168.1.158

IP address 192.168.1.146/28
IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:B::15/64

—————————————–

Backup the Configuration of the Town Hall Router to TFTP.

Middle#copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host []? 192.168.1.146
Destination filename [Router-confg]? [Press Enter]

—————————————–

 

CCNA 1 v5.02 ITN Pretest Exam Answers

1. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

11110010

11011011

11110110

11100111*

11100101

11101110

2. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

85

90

BA*

A1

B3

1C

3. The failure rate in a certain brand of network interface card has been determined to be 15%. How many cards could be expected to fail in a company that has 80 of the cards installed?

8

10

12*

15

4. A local real estate company can have its 25 computer systems upgraded for $1000. If the company chooses only to upgrade 10 systems, how much will the upgrade cost if the same rate is used?

$100

$200

$400*

$500

$600

5. Considering the average capacity of storage device media, drag the storage media on the left to the capacity list on the right.

6. Which two devices provide permanent data storage? (Choose two.)

Blu-Ray disc*

hard drive*

keyboard

monitor

RAM

7. If a technician uses an average of 2 cans of compressed air per week for cleaning, how many cans should be ordered for 8 technicians over the next 10 weeks?

16

20

80

160*

200

8. What is a function of the BIOS?

enables a computer to connect to a network

provides temporary data storage for the CPU

performs a power-on self test of internal components*

provides graphic capabilities for games and applications

9. Match the form of network communication with its description. (Not all options are used.)

10. Refer to the exhibit. Match the port to the associated letter shown in the exhibit. (Not all options are used.)

11. Which is a characteristic of the Internet?

It is not centrally governed.*

It uses only physical addresses.

It uses private IP addressing.

It is localized to specific geographic locations.

12. Match the icon to its likely associated use. (Not all options are used.)

13. Which command can be used to test connectivity between two computers that are attached to a network?

ipconfig

ping*

winipcfg

ifconfig

nbtstst -s

14. A person-hour is the amount of work that the average worker can do in one hour. It is anticipated that a company-wide system upgrade will take approximately 60 person-hours to complete. How long will it take five technicians to perform the refresh?

5 hours

8 hours

10 hours

12 hours*

15. Match the application with the correct compressed files format. (Not all options are used.)

16. Which type of connector does a network interface card use?

DIN

PS-2

RJ-11

RJ-45*

17. A user is having problems accessing the Internet. The command ping www.cisco.com fails. However, pinging the IP address of cisco.com with the command ping 198.133.219.25 is successful. What is the problem?

The web server is down.

The default gateway is incorrect.

There is a problem with DNS.*

The address of the ARP cache is incorrect.

18. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?

2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13

2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13

2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13

2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13*

19. What is the purpose of the routing process?

to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network

to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*

to convert a URL name into an IP address

to provide secure Internet file transfer

to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

20. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

switch

hub

router*

host

21. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

22. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

LAN

MAN

WAN*

WLAN

23. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

to determine the active TCP connections on a PC

to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server

to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*

to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

24. Which basic process is used to select the best path for forwarding data?

routing*

switching

addressing

encapsulation

25. Which wireless security procedure should be used to hide the WLAN ID from wireless clients?

Configure WEP only on the access point.

Install WAP on the wireless clients.

Configure MAC address filtering on the access point.

Disable the broadcast of the SSID on the access point.*

Decrease the antenna spectrum on each wireless client.

26. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices

to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally

to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

27. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*

It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

28. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

ARP

DNS

NAT*

SMB

DHCP

HTTP

29. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

30. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

the TCP/IP stack on a network host*

connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices

connectivity between a PC and the default gateway

connectivity between two PCs on the same network

physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

31. Which function is provided by TCP?

data encapsulation

detection of missing packets*

communication session control

path determination for data packets

32. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

33. What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?

ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network.

ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network.

ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network.

ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network.*

34. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

frame

packet

protocol data unit*

segment

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.1.1.1*

172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.16.4.4*

192.168.5.5*

224.6.6.6

36. How does a networked server manage requests from multiple clients for different services?

The server sends all requests through a default gateway.

Each request is assigned source and destination port numbers.*

The server uses IP addresses to identify different services.

Each request is tracked through the physical address of the client.

37. Which protocol translates a website name such as www.cisco.com into a network address?

HTTP

FTP

DHCP

DNS*

38. What is an advantage of using IPv6 ?

more addresses for networks and hosts*

faster connectivity

higher bandwidth

more frequencies

39. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

192.135.250.1

192.31.7.1

192.133.219.0

192.133.219.1*

40. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is preparing to send data to Server_B. How will Host_A address the packets and frames that will carry this data? (Choose two.)

The packet destination will be addressed with the IP address of the Router_B interface that is attached to Router_A.

The frame destination will be addressed with the MAC address of Switch_A.

The packet destination will be addressed with the IP address of the Router_A LAN interface.

The frame destination will be addressed with the MAC address of the Router_A LAN interface.*

The packet destination will be addressed with the IP address of Server_B.*

The frame destination will be addressed with the MAC address of Server_B..

CCNA 1 v5.02 ITN Chapter 11 Exam Answers

1. Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?

Internet router

firewall

low port density switch

redundancy*

2. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

SNMP

TCP

PoE

RTP*

3. How should traffic flow be captured in order to best understand traffic patterns in a network?

during low utilization times

during peak utilization times*

when it is on the main network segment only

when it is from a subset of users

4. A network administrator checks the security log and notices there was unauthorized access to an internal file server over the weekend. Upon further investigation of the file system log, the administrator notices several important documents were copied to a host located outside of the company. What kind of threat is represented in this scenario?

data loss

identity theft

information theft*

disruption of service

5. Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful attack on an email server account? (Choose two.)

Never send the password through the network in a clear text.*

Never use passwords that need the Shift key.

Never allow physical access to the server console.

Only permit authorized access to the server room.

Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.*

6. Which type of network attack involves the disabling or corruption of networks, systems, or services?

reconnaissance attacks

access attacks

denial of service attacks*

malicious code attacks

7. A network administrator has determined that various computers on the network are infected with a worm. Which sequence of steps should be followed to mitigate the worm attack?

inoculation, containment, quarantine, and treatment

containment, quarantine, treatment, and inoculation

treatment, quarantine, inoculation, and containment

containment, inoculation, quarantine, and treatment*

8. What is a security feature of using NAT on a network?

allows external IP addresses to be concealed from internal users

allows internal IP addresses to be concealed from external users*

denies all packets that originate from private IP addresses

denies all internal hosts from communicating outside their own network

9. Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the network administrator?

Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.

H3 is not connected properly to the network.

Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.

Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.

Something is causing a time delay between the networks.*

10. When should an administrator establish a network baseline?

when the traffic is at peak in the network

when there is a sudden drop in traffic

at the lowest point of traffic in the network

at regular intervals over a period of time*

11. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

PC2

R1*

SW2

R2

SW1

12. A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?

The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.

The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.*

The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.

The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established from a non-directly connected network.

13. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device??

The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity?.

To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.

CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface?.*

Because it runs at the data link layer?, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

14. What is the purpose of issuing the commands cd nvram: then dir at the privilege exec mode of a router?

to clear the content of the NVRAM

to direct all new files to the NVRAM

to list the content of the NVRAM*

to copy the directories from the NVRAM

15. If a configuration file is saved to a USB flash drive attached to a router, what must be done by the network administrator before the file can be used on the router?

Convert the file system from FAT32 to FAT16.

Edit the configuration file with a text editor.*

Change the permission on the file from ro to rw.

Use the dir command from the router to remove the Windows automatic alphabetization of the files on the flash drive.

16. Which command will backup the configuration that is stored in NVRAM to a TFTP server?

copy running-config tftp

copy tftp running-config

copy startup-config tftp*

copy tftp startup-config

17. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs*

consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive

responsible for determining the signal strength

all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID*

used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

18. What do WLANs that conform to IEEE 802.11 standards allow wireless users to do?

use wireless mice and keyboards

create a one-to-many local network using infrared technology

use cell phones to access remote services over very large areas

connect wireless hosts to hosts or services on a wired Ethernet network*

19. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

EAP

PSK

WEP

WPA*

20. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.

Some RF channels provide automatic encryption of wireless data.

With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.*

Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.*

An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

21. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The __show version__ command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of the software configuration register.?

22. Fill in the blank.
__VoIP__   defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice data over an IP network.

23. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The show  __file systems__  command provides information about the amount of free nvram and flash memory with the permissions for reading or writing data.

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

How long will a user be blocked if the user exceeds the maximum allowed number of unsuccessful login attempts?

1 minute

2 minutes

3 minutes*

4 minutes

CCNA 1 v5.02 ITN Chapter 10 Exam Answers

1. Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

physical layer

session layer*

transport layer

application layer*

presentation layer*

data link layer

2. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

compression*

addressing

encryption*

session control

authentication

3. Select three protocols that operate at the Application Layer of the OSI model. (Choose three.)

ARP

TCP

DSL

FTP*

POP3*

DHCP*

4. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)

FTP*

HTTP*

DNS

SNMP

DHCP

SMTP*

5. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

scalable

one way data flow

decentralized resources*

centralized user accounts

resource sharing without a dedicated server*

6. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?

A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.

A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.

A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.

A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.*

7. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

Messages are kept in the mail servers until the client manually deletes them.*

When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but

IMAP keeps them for a long time.

IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.

POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.

8. Which two actions are taken by SMTP if the destination email server is busy when email messages are sent? (Choose two.)

SMTP sends an error message back to the sender and closes the connection.

SMTP tries to send the messages at a later time.*

SMTP will discard the message if it is still not delivered after a predetermined expiration time.

SMTP periodically checks the queue for messages and attempts to send them again.*

SMTP sends the messages to another mail server for delivery.

9. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?

DNS

DHCP

SMTP

HTTP*

POP3

10. A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)

DHCPDISCOVER*

DHCPACK

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST*

DHCPNAK

11. A user accessed the game site www.nogamename.com last week. The night before the user accesses the game site again, the site administrator changes the site IP address. What will be the consequence of that action for the user?

The user will not be able to access the site.

The user will access the site without problems.*

The user will have to modify the DNS server address on the local PC in order to access the site.

The user will have to issue a ping to this new IP address to be sure that the domain name remained the same.

12. Which DNS server in the DNS hierarchy would be considered authoritative for the domain name records of a company named netacad?

.com

netacad.com*

mx.netacad.com

www.netacad.com

13. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).

The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.*

The message comes from a server offering an IP address.

The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.*

All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.*

Only the DHCP server receives the message.

14. Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?

a diagnostic FTP program

a program that is running on an FTP server*

a program that is running on an FTP client

an application that is used to request data from an FTP server

15. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?

Different SMB message types have a different format.

Clients establish a long term connection to servers.*

SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.

SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.

16. When would it be more efficient to use SMB to transfer files instead of FTP?

when downloading large files with a variety of formats from different servers

when a peer-to-peer application is required

when the host devices on the network use the Windows operating system

when downloading large numbers of files from the same server*

when uploading the same file to multiple remote servers

17. Fill in the blank.

What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server?__HTTPS__

18. Fill in the blank.

Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying the name servers? __NSLOOKUP__

19. Match the DNS record type to the corresponding description. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

end device address

– not scored –

authoritative name server

canonical name

mail exchange record

20. Match the purpose with its DHCP message type. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

a message that is used to identify the explicit server and lease offer to accept

a message that is used to locate any available DHCP server on a network

– not scored –

a message that is used to suggest a lease to a client

a message that is used to acknowledge that the lease is successful

21. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

peer-to-peer network

[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis

peer-to-peer aplication

[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?

PC_3

PC_1

PC_2*

PC_1 and PC_3

CCNA 1 v5.02 ITN Chapter 9 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there?

1

2

3

4*

2. How many usable host addresses are there in the subnet 192.168.1.32/27?

32

30*

64

16

62

3. How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?

510

512

1022*

1024

2046

2048

4. A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.248. How many host addresses will this subnet provide??

4

6*

8

10

12

5. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128*

255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.240

6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33*

IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46

IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1

7. How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks?

two

three*

four

five

8. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.16/28

192.168.1.64/27*

192.168.1.128/27

192.168.1.96/28*

192.168.1.192/28

9.In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

/23

/24

/25*

/26

10. Refer to the exhibit.

Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many total host addresses are unused in the assigned subnets?

56

60

64

68

72*

11. When developing an IP addressing scheme for an enterprise network, which devices are recommended to be grouped into their own subnet or logical addressing group?

end-user clients

workstation clients

mobile and laptop hosts

hosts accessible from the Internet*

12. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

random static addresses to improve security

addresses from different subnets for redundancy

predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*

dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

13. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

It eliminates most address configuration errors.*

It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.

It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.

It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.

It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

14. Refer to the exhibit. A computer that is configured with the IPv6 address as shown in the exhibit is unable to access the internet. What is the problem?

 

The DNS address is wrong.

There should not be an alternative DNS address.

The gateway address is in the wrong subnet.*

The settings were not validated.

15. When subnetting a /64 IPv6 network prefix, which is the preferred new prefix length?

/66

/70

/72*

/74

16. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

2001:DB8:BC15::0

2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*

2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1

2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

17. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

/62

/64*

/66

/68*

/70

18. Fill in the blank.

In dotted decimal notation, the IP address __172.25.0.126__  is the last host address for the network 172.25.0.64/26.

19. Fill in the blank.

In dotted decimal notation, the subnet mask __255.255.254.0 will accommodate 500 hosts per subnet.

20. Fill in the blank.

Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is __/60

21. Fill in the blank.

A nibble consists of __4__  bits.

22. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

 

Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
192.168.1.64/27
– not scored –
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.96/27

23. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
Network C
– not scored –
Network A
Network D
Network B

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What issue is causing Host A to be unable to communicate with Host B?

The subnet mask of host A is incorrect.

Host A has an incorrect default gateway.

Host A and host B are on overlapping subnets.*

The IP address of host B is not in the same subnet as the default gateway is on.

CCNA 1 v5.02 ITN Chapter 8 Exam Answers

1. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

32*

64

128

256

2. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

subnet portion

network portion*

logical portion

host portion*

physical portion

broadcast portion

3. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?

/25

/26

/27*

/28

4. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

limited broadcast

multicast

directed broadcast*

unicast

5. What two statements describe characteristics of Layer 3 broadcasts? (Choose two.)

Broadcasts are a threat and users must avoid using protocols that implement them.

Routers create broadcast domains.*

Some IPv6 protocols use broadcasts.*

There is a broadcast domain on each switch interface.

A limited broadcast packet has a destination IP address of 255.255.255.255.

A router will not forward any type of Layer 3 broadcast packet.*

6. A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

254

251*

252

253

7. Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to carry them over IPv4 network infrastructures?

encapsulation

translation

dual-stack

tunneling*

8. Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.*

IPv4 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.

IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length.

IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length.*

IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length.

IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.

9. Which IPv6 address is most compressed for the full FE80:0:0:0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3 address??

FE8::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3?

FE80::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3*

FE80::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3?

FE80:::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3?

10. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)

multicast

loopback*

link-local*

anycast

broadcast

11. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP*

a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network*

12. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::1. What is the target of this packet?

all IPv6 DHCP servers

all IPv6 enabled nodes on the local link*

all IPv6 configured routers on the local link

all IPv6 configured routers across the network

13. When a Cisco router is being moved from an IPv4 network to a complete IPv6 environment, which series of commands would correctly enable IPv6 forwarding and interface addressing?

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.254 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# exit
Router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ipv6 address 2001:db8:bced:1::9/64
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# exit
Router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing***

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ipv6 address 2001:db8:bced:1::9/64
Router(config-if)# no shutdown

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 2001:db8:bced:1::9/64
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.254 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown

14. Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols? (Choose two.)?

router solicitation

route redirection*

neighbor solicitation

protocol unreachable*

router advertisement

15. When an IPv6 enabled host needs to discover the MAC address of an intended IPv6 destination, which destination address is used by the source host in the NS message?

all-node multicast address

solicited-node multicast address*

link-local address of the receiver

global unicast address of the receiver

16. When will a router drop a traceroute packet?

when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message

when the RTT value reaches zero

when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message

when the value in the TTL field reaches zero*

when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

17. What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?

The host is cabled properly.

The default gateway address is correctly configured.

All hosts on the local link are available.

The link-local address is correctly configured.

IP is properly installed on the host.*

18. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device

the IP address of the router nearest the destination device

the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source*

whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network*

the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

19. Fill in the blank.

The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is __149__ .

20. Fill in the blank.

What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F? __63__

21. Match each description with an appropriate IP Address. (Not all options are used.)

192.31.18.123 -> a legacy class C address
198.256.2.6 -> an invalid IPv4 address
64.100.3.5 -> a legacy class A address
224.2.6.255 -> a legacy class D address
128.107.5.1 -> a legacy class B address

22. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)

169.254.1.5 -> a link-local address
192.0.2.123 -> a TEST-NET address
240.2.6.255 -> an experimental address
172.19.20.5 -> a private address
127.0.0.1 -> a loopback address

23.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which message is displayed on the web server?

You did it right!

Correct configuration!*

IPv6 address configured!

Successful configuration!

CCNA 1 v5.02 ITN Chapter 7 Exam Answers

1. What is a socket?

the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address

the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number*

the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers

the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers

2. A host device needs to send a large video file across the network while providing data communication to other users. Which feature will allow different communication streams to occur at the same time, without having a single data stream using all available bandwidth?

window size

multiplexing*

port numbers

acknowledgments

3. A host device sends a data packet to a web server via the HTTP protocol. What is used by the transport layer to pass the data stream to the proper application on the server?

sequence number

acknowledgment

source port number

destination port number*

4. What is a beneficial feature of the UDP transport protocol?

acknowledgment of received data

fewer delays in transmission*

tracking of data segments using sequence numbers

the ability to retransmit lost data

5. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.

A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.

A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.*

A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

6. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?

0 to 255

0 to 1023*

256 – 1023

1024 – 49151

7. What does a client application select for a TCP or UDP source port number?

a random value in the well-known port range

a random value in the range of the registered ports*

a predefined value in the well-known port range

a predefined value in the range of the registered ports

8. Compared to UDP, what factor causes additional network overhead for TCP communication?

network traffic that is caused by retransmissions*

the identification of applications based on destination port numbers

the encapsulation into IP packets

the checksum error detection

9. Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?

UDP ACK flag

TCP 3-way handshake*

UDP sequence number

TCP port number

10.Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)

ACK*

FIN

PSH

RST

SYN*

URG

11. Which factor determines TCP window size?

the amount of data to be transmitted

the number of services included in the TCP segment

the amount of data the destination can process at one time*

the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time

12. During a TCP session, a destination device sends an acknowledgment number to the source device. What does the acknowledgment number represent?

the total number of bytes that have been received

one number more than the sequence number

the next byte that the destination expects to receive*

the last sequence number that was sent by the source

13. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?

1 segment

10 segments*

100 segments

1000 segments

14. Which two TCP header fields are used to confirm receipt of data?

FIN flag

SYN flag

checksum

sequence number*

acknowledgment number*

15. What happens if the first packet of a TFTP transfer is lost?

The client will wait indefinitely for the reply.

The TFTP application will retry the request if a reply is not received.*

The next-hop router or the default gateway will provide a reply with an error code.

The transport layer will retry the query if a reply is not received.

16. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?

It just sends the datagrams.*

It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.

It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.

It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.

17. A technician wishes to use TFTP to transfer a large file from a file server to a remote router. Which statement is correct about this scenario?

The file is segmented and then reassembled in the correct order by TCP.

The file is segmented and then reassembled in the correct order at the destination, if necessary, by the upper-layer protocol.*

The file is not segmented, because UDP is the transport layer protocol that is used by TFTP.

Large files must be sent by FTP not TFTP.

18. Fill in the blank.

During a TCP session, the __SYN__ flag is used by the client to request communication with the server.

19. Fill in the blank using a number.

A total of __4__ messages are exchanged during the TCP session termination process between the client and the server.

20. Match the characteristic to the protocol category. (Not all options are used.)

TCP  ->  window size
TCP  -> 3-way handshake
UDP -> connectionless
UDP -> best for VoIP
Both UDP and TCP -> checksum
Both UDP and TCP -> port number

21. Match each application to its connectionless or connection-oriented protocol.

TCP  -> HTTP 
TCP  -> FTP 
TCP  -> TELNET
UDP  -> TFTP
UDP  -> DHCP 

22. Refer to the exhibit. Consider a datagram that originates on the PC and that is destined for the web server. Match the IP addresses and port numbers that are in that datagram to the description. (Not all options are used.)


192.168.1.2 -> source IP address
192.168.2.2 -> destination IP address
2578 -> source port number
80 -> destination port number