CCNA 1 Practice Final Exam v5.02 exam answers

1. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

2. For which three reasons was a packet-switched connectionless data communications technology used when developing the Internet? (Choose three.)

It can rapidly adapt to the loss of data transmission facilities.*

It efficiently utilizes the network infrastructure to transfer data.*

Data packets can travel multiple paths through the network simultaneously.*

It allows for billing of network use by the amount of time a connection is established.

It requires that a data circuit between the source and destination be established before data can be transferred.

3. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?

DSL

dialup

satellite

leased line*

cable modem

4. What is an ISP?

It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.*

It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

5. An administrator needs to upgrade the IOS in a router to a version that supports new features. Which factor should the administrator consider before performing the upgrade?

The old IOS must be removed first.

NVRAM must be erased before the new IOS can be installed.

The new IOS might require more RAM to function properly.*

The old IOS should be backed up to NVRAM so that it is not lost during a power failure.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is attempting to connect to a new router to perform the initial configuration. The engineer connects a rollover cable from the serial port of a PC to the Aux port on the router, then configures HyperTerminal as shown. The engineer cannot get a login prompt in HyperTerminal. What would fix the problem?

Connect to the Ethernet port on the PC.

Change connection settings to even parity.

Move the cable to the router console port.*

Use a crossover cable instead of a rollover cable.

7. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco router?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

8. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to view the current configuration on this switch but receives the error message that is displayed. What does this error indicate?

The command does not exist.

One or more required keywords or arguments were omitted.

Not enough characters were entered for the interpreter to recognize the command.*

The administrator does not have the required level of access to use this command.

9. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

The banner message is too long.

The delimiting character appears in the banner message.*

The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.

Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console port.

10. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.*

This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

12. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

13. A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.

The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.

The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.*

The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

14. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

presentation layer

network layer

physical layer*

data link layer

15. Why are the paired wires twisted in a CAT5 cable?

to facilitate cable termination in the connector

to extend the signaling length

to improve the mechanical strength

to provide eletromagnetic noise cancellation*

16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

greater distances per cable run*

lower installation cost

limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI*

durable connections

greater bandwidth potential*

easily terminated

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which layer of the OSI model would format data in this way?

physical

network

data link*

transport

application

18. On a point-to-point network, which communication type is used when two devices can both transmit and receive but not at the same time?

controlled access

deterministic

full-duplex

half-duplex*

19. What three statements describe features or functions of media access control? (Choose three.)

Controlled media access involves collision handling.

It is responsible for detecting transmission errors in transmitted data.*

It uses contention-based access also known as deterministic access.

802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.

Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.*

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.*

20. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

to determine the physical address of the sending device

to verify the network layer protocol information

to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends

to check the frame for possible transmission errors*

to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

21. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?

Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address*

Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address

Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address

Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

22. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table*

forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway

utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address*

examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

23. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet switching*

microsegmentation

domain name resolution

path selection*

flow control

24. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

The IOS image is corrupt.

Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.*

The POST process has detected hardware failure.

25. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

Perform the POST routine.

Search for a backup IOS in ROM.

Load the bootstrap program from ROM.

Load the running-config file from RAM.

Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.*

26. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

to identify missing segments at the destination*

to reassemble the segments at the remote location*

to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination

to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time

to determine if the packet changed during transit

27. A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address 192.168.25.10. The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is 192.168.25.10. The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?

This is a loopback address.

This is a link-local address.

This is a private IP address.*

There is an IP address conflict.

28. Which service will translate private internal IP addresses into Internet routable public IP addresses?

ARP

DHCP

DNS

NAT*

29. Which IPv6 address notation is valid?

2001:0DB8::ABCD::1234

ABCD:160D::4GAB:FFAB

2001:DB8:0:1111::200*

2001::ABCD::

30. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface??

FEC0::/10?

FDEE::/7?

FEBF::/10*

FF00::/8?

31. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

broadcast address

global routing prefix*

subnet mask

subnet ID*

interface ID*

32. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

33. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

It sends four Echo Request messages.

It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.

It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.

It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.*

34. Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network in order to minimize address waste?

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252*

255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252

35. A network administrator has been issued a network address of 192.31.7.64/26. How many subnets of equal size could be created from the assigned /26 network by using a /28 prefix?

3

4*

6

8

14

16

36. A small satellite office has been given the overall network number of 192.168.99.0/24 and the network technician can subdivide the network addresses as needed. The office needs network access for both wired and wireless devices. However, because of the security consideration, these two networks should be separate. The wired network will have 20 devices. The wireless network has a potential connection of 45 devices. Which addressing scheme would be most efficient for these two networks?

192.168.99.0/26
192.168.99.64/27*

192.168.99.0/27
192.168.99.32/26

192.168.99.0/27
192.168.99.32/28

192.168.99.0/28
192.168.99.16/28

192.168.99.0/28
192.168.99.64/26

37. The administrator of a branch office receives an IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:3000::/52 from the corporate network manager. How many subnets can the administrator create?

1024

2048

4096*

8192

65536

38. A user is attempting to do an http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

DNS server*

WINS server

HTTP server

default gateway*

Netbios

39. Which devices should be secured to mitigate against MAC address spoofing attacks?

Layer 7 devices

Layer 4 devices

Layer 2 devices*

Layer 3 devices

40. Which router configuration mode would an administrator use to configure the router for SSH or Telnet login access?

line*

router

global

interface

privileged EXEC

41. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

Connectivity to the remote device was successful.

A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.*

A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.

The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.

42. Which is a function of the show ip route command when used as a tool for troubleshooting network connectivity?

indicates the point of failure in the connection

shows the IP address of the next hop router for each route*

lists the IP addresses of all hops the traffic will pass through to reach the destination network

shows the incoming and outgoing interfaces the traffic will go through in order to reach the destination network

43. A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the network after startup and that a popup window says “This connection has limited or no connectivity.” The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?

The workstation NIC has malfunctioned.

The subnet mask was configured incorrectly.

The DNS server IP address needs to be configured.

The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.*

44. A particular email site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

45. To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged?

The command should have been copy startup-config tftp.

The configuration should have been copied to the running configuration instead.*

The configuration changes were copied into RAM and require a reboot to take effect.

A TFTP server can only be used to restore the Cisco IOS, not the router configuration.

46. Refer to the graphic. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

It identifies the wireless LAN.

It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.

It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.

It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.*

It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

47. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

EAP

PSK

WEP*

WPA

48. Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings could be changed to improve security on the wireless network? (Choose two.)

network mode

SSID*

radio band

wide channel

standard channel

SSID broadcast*

49. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. Use lower case.

Which interface configuration mode command puts a Layer 3 switch interface into Layer 3 mode? __no switchport__

50. Fill in the blank.

A nibble consists of __4__ bits.

51. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

52. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

53. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

54. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the secret keyword that is displayed on the web page?

router

switch

frame

packet*

cisco

55. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is __winner__ .?

56. A small business user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

57. What information does the loopback test provide?

The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*

The device has end-to-end connectivity.

DHCP is working correctly.

The Ethernet cable is working correctly.

The device has the correct IP address on the network.

58. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

Request for Comments*

IRTF research papers

protocol models

IEEE standards

59. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*

Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.

Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*

Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.

Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab​les and laser technology for multimode cables.

60. What is the function of CSMA/CA in a WLAN?

It provides the mechanism for media access.*

It describes the smallest building block of the WLAN.

It assures that clients are connected to the correct WLAN.

It allows a host to move between cells without loss of signal.

61. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.*

It will forward the frame to the next host.

It will remove the frame from the media.

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

62. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

It initiates an ARP request.

It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

63. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

adjacency tables*

MAC-address tables

routing tables

ARP tables

forwarding information base (FIB)*

64. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC

source and destination application protocol

source and destination port number

source and destination IP address*

65. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.*

The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.

The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.*

66. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.

The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.*

67. What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?

sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination

determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer

requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source

synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer*

68. Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network, including the links between routers, in order to minimize address waste?

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252*

255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252

69. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

70. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to let the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST

DHCPACK*

DHCPNACK

71. Which two types of applications rely on their traffic having priority over other traffic types through the network? (Choose two.)

email

file transfer

instant messaging

video*

voice*

72. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

exec-timeout 30

service password-encryption

banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

73. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60

74. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 ITN Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

Last updated by Admin at May.

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

  • wiki
  • e-mail
  • weblog
  • instant messaging*

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

  • DSL*
  • dial-up
  • satellite
  • cell modem
  • cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

  • LAN
  • MAN
  • WAN*
  • WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS? 

  • flash memory*
  • NVRAM?
  • RAM
  • ROM
  • a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

  • a console connection
  • an AUX connection
  • a Telnet connection
  • an SSH connection*

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

  • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
  • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
  • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*
  • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

  • to restart the ping process
  • to interrupt the ping process*
  • to exit to a different configuration mode
  • to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

  • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
  • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
  • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
  • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?

  • My Switch(config)#?
  • Switch(config)#?*
  • MySwitch(config)#?
  • My(config)#?
  • Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

  • letmein
  • secretin
  • lineconin
  • linevtyin*

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
  • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

  • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
  • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
  • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.*
  • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 0.0.0.1
  • 127.0.0.1*
  • 192.168.1.1
  • 255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

  • ARP
  • DHCP*
  • DNS*
  • FTP*
  • NAT
  • PPP

16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

  • ARP
  • BOOTP
  • ICMP*
  • IP*
  • PPP

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

  • Request for Comments*
  • IRTF research papers
  • protocol models
  • IEEE standards

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

  • IP address
  • default gateway address
  • MAC address*
  • logical address

19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

  • ARP, multicast
  • DNS, unicast
  • DNS, broadcast
  • ARP, broadcast*
  • PING, multicast
  • PING, broadcast

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

  • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
  • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
  • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
  • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*
  • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

  • It accepts frames from the physical media.
  • It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
  • It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
  • It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.*

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

  • requiring proper grounding connections
  • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*
  • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
  • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
  • avoiding sharp bends during installation

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

  • Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*
  • Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
  • Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*
  • Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
  • Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

  • logical address
  • physical address
  • data
  • error detection*

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

  • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
  • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
  • crossover Ethernet cable connection*
  • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
  • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

  • just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*
  • just the PC0 MAC address
  • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
  • just the PC1 MAC address
  • just the PC2 MAC address?

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

  • A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
  • An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.*
  • A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
  • A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

  • to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
  • to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*
  • to convert a URL name into an IP address
  • to provide secure Internet file transfer
  • to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

  • ARP
  • DNS
  • NAT*
  • SMB
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*
  • It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
  • It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

  • packet switching*
  • microsegmentation
  • domain name resolution
  • path selection*
  • flow control

32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

  • ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
  • FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
  • RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.*
  • NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
  • ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.*

33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

  • NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
  • NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode*
  • setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
  • TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
  • flash, ROM, setup mode

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

  • 10.172.168.1*
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.20.4.4*
  • 192.168.5.254*
  • 224.6.6.6

36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

  • 4
  • 8
  • 16*
  • 32

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

  • to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
  • to enable the router as an IPv6 router*
  • to permit only unicast packets on the router
  • to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?

  • FEC0::/10?
  • FDFF::/7?
  • FEBF::/10?
  • FF00::/8*

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

  • to inform routers about network topology changes
  • to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
  • to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*
  • to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

  • The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
  • The default gateway address in incorrect.*
  • The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
  • The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

  • 192.168.1.64/26*
  • 192.168.1.32/27
  • 192.168.1.32/28
  • 192.168.1.64/29

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

  • random static addresses to improve security
  • addresses from different subnets for redundancy
  • predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*
  • dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

  • Site 1
  • Site 2*
  • Site 3
  • Site 4

44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

  • /62
  • /64*
  • /66
  • /68*
  • /70

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

  • DHCPDISCOVER*
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPREQUEST*
  • DHCPACK
  • DHCPNACK

46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

  • to require users to prove who they are
  • to determine which resources a user can access
  • to keep track of the actions of a user*
  • to provide challenge and response questions

47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

  • exec-timeout 30
  • service password-encryption
  • banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
  • login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

  • ipconfig /all
  • arp -a
  • ipconfig /displaydns*
  • nslookup

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

  • 192.168.9.254
  • 192.168.10.1
  • 192.168.10.2
  • 192.168.11.252*
  • 192.168.11.254

50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

  • broadcast SSID*
  • MAC filtering enabled
  • WEP encryption enabled
  • PSK authentication required
  • default administrator password*

52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP       is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

  • media
  • wireless NIC*
  • custom adapter
  • crossover cable
  • wireless bridge
  • wireless client software*

55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is            /60       .

56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

  • Stage 1 – perform the post
  • Stage 2 – load the bootstrap program
  • Stage 3 – Locate and load the Cisco IOS
  • Stage 4 – locate and load the configuration file

 

57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

  • when a cellular telephone provides the service
  • when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
  • when a satellite dish is used
  • when a regular telephone line is used*

59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

  • audio conference, database, HTTP*
  • database, HTTP, audio conference
  • audio conference, HTTP, database
  • database, audio conference, HTTP

60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

  • RAM*
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • disk drive

61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

  • a console connection
  • an AUX connection
  • a Telnet connection
  • an SSH connection*

62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

  • Ctrl-Shift-X
  • Ctrl-Shift-6*
  • Ctrl-Z
  • Ctrl-C

63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

  • HR Switch(config)#?
  • Switch(config)#?*
  • HRSwitch(config)#?
  • HR(config)#?
  • Switch#

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
  • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

  • FastEthernet0/1
  • VLAN 1*
  • vty 0
  • console 0

66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

  • the TCP/IP stack on a network host*
  • connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
  • connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
  • connectivity between two PCs on the same network
  • physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

  • switch
  • hub
  • router*
  • host

69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

  • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
  • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
  • the type of traffic that is crossing the network*
  • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
  • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
  • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

  • It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*
  • Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
  • It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
  • It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
  • It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling*

71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

  • It is straightforward to troubleshoot.*
  • End devices are connected together by a bus.
  • It is easy to add and remove end devices.*
  • All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
  • Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

  • to determine the physical address of the sending device
  • to verify the network layer protocol information
  • to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
  • to check the frame for possible transmission errors*
  • to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

  • It initiates an ARP request.
  • It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
  • It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
  • It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

  • cut-through
  • store-and-forward
  • fragment-free
  • fast-forward*

75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

  • the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network*
  • the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
  • the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
  • the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

  • stores routing tables
  • allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
  • maintains instructions for POST diagnostics*
  • holds ARP cache
  • stores bootstrap program*

77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

  • A console port is used for remote management of the router.
  • A console port is not used for packet forwarding.*
  • Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
  • Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

  • 192.0.2.199
  • 198.51.100.201
  • 203.0.113.211*
  • 209.165.201.223

80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

  • 10.20.30.1*
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.30.5.3*
  • 192.168.5.5*
  • 224.6.6.6

81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

  • private addresses
  • public addresses*
  • multicast addresses
  • experimental addresses

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

  • 11
  • 12
  • 13*
  • 14

83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

  • 192.168.1.16/28
  • 192.168.1.64/27*
  • 192.168.1.128/27
  • 192.168.1.96/28*
  • 192.168.1.192/28

84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

  • /23
  • /24
  • /25*
  • /26

85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

  • Transmission Control Protocol
  • Real-Time Transport Protocol*
  • Secure File Transfer Protocol
  • Video over Internet Protocol

86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

  • to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
  • to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
  • to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*
  • to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

  • The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
  • The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.*
  • An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
  • An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

89. Fill in the blank.

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as       full-duplex         .

90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

  • area A
  • area B
  • area C*
  • area D

93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

  • to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
  • to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
  • to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
  • to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

  • audio conference, financial transactions, web page*
  • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
  • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
  • financial transactions, audio conference, web page

95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

  • RAM*
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • disk drive

96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

  • The configuration will be copied to flash.
  • The configuration will load when the router is restarted.*
  • The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
  • The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

97. What information does the loopback test provide?

  • The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*
  • The device has end-to-end connectivity.
  • DHCP is working correctly.
  • The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
  • The device has the correct IP address on the network.

98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

  • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
  • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
  • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*
  • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

  • CSMA/CD
  • priority ordering
  • CSMA/CA*
  • token passing

100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

  • The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
  • The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
  • The switch drops the frame.*
  • The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 255.255.255.255
  • FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

  • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
  • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection*
  • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
  • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

  • cut-through switching
  • store-and-forward switching*
  • fragment-free switching
  • fast-forward switching

104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

  • adjacency tables
  • MAC-address tables
  • routing tables*
  • ARP tables*
  • forwarding information base (FIB)

105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

  • It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
  • It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward*
  • the destination host.*
  • It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
  • It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

  • ARP
  • DNS
  • NAT*
  • SMB
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

  • The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.
  • The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.
  • The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.*
  • The gateway of last resort was not configured.

108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

  • TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*
  • TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
  • UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
  • TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*
  • TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?

  • the destination IP address
  • the destination port number*
  • the source IP address
  • the source port number

111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

  • Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.*
  • A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
  • A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
  • Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

  • MAC address
  • IP address*
  • kernel
  • shell
  • subnet mask*

113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

  • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
  • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*
  • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*
  • Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*
  • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
  • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

  • It eliminates most address configuration errors.*
  • It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
  • It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
  • It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
  • It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

  • 2001:DB8:BC15::0
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

  • compression*
  • addressing
  • encryption*
  • session control
  • authentication

117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

  • to require users to prove who they are*
  • to determine which resources a user can access
  • to keep track of the actions of a user
  • to provide challenge and response questions

118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

119. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a         Multicast                    message.

120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

121. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is .​ ”   winner   ”

122. A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?

  • This entry refers to the PC itself.
  • This entry maps to the default gateway.
  • This is a static map entry.*
  • This is a dynamic map entry.

123. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

  • Packet Length
  • Destination Address*
  • Flag
  • Time-to-Live

124. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?

  • 2001:db8:abc:1::1
  • 2001:db8:abc:5::1  *
  • 2001:db8:abc:5::2
  • 2001:db8:abc:10::15

Updated May 25, 2015 (62 new question)

1. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page*

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions

financial transactions, audio conference, web page

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin*

lineconin

linevtyin

3. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

error correction through a collision detection method

session control using port numbers

data link layer addressing*

placement and removal of frames from the media

detection of errors through CRC calculations*

delimiting groups of bits into frames*

conversion of bits into data signals

4. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?

Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.

Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.

CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.*

Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).

5. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?

to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)

to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses*

to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making

to update the forwarding information base (FIB)

6. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?

It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.

In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.

When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.

Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one host to another.*

7. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?

Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.

ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can be used on the Internet.*

ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that can be used on the Internet.

Both users must be on the same network.

8. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local*

unique local

site local

global unicast

9. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

to ensure the fastest possible download speed

because HTTP is a best-effort protocol

because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

because HTTP requires reliable delivery*

10. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

10111010

11010101

11001010*

11011010

11. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*

2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

2001:DB8::AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​

11

12

13*

14

13. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

TTL field

CRC field

Hop Limit field*

Time Exceeded field

14. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

15. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

port filtering

stateful packet inspection*

URL filtering

application filtering

16. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to the remote host?

trace 10.1.1.5

traceroute 10.1.1.5

tracert 10.1.1.5*

ping 10.1.1.5

17. Fill in the blank.

To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be      grounded        correctly

18. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

19. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?

The cable insulation could be flammable.*

Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.

Network cables could be exposed to water.

The network cable could explode.

20. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?

a multimeter

an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer

a cable tester*

an ohmmeter

21. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?

capacitance

wire map*

inductance

flexibility

22. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*

just the PC0 MAC address

PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

just the PC1 MAC address

just the PC2 MAC address​

23. Which function is provided by TCP?

data encapsulation

detection of missing packets*

communication session control

path determination for data packets

24. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?

an ARP table

a routing table*

the destination PC physical address

a switching table

25. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?

an inband router interface

a console port

a serial WAN interface

an AUX port*

26. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

user executive mode

global configuration mode

any line configuration mode*

privileged EXEC mode

27. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

28. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

2

21

250

306*

2921

29. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?

IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.

A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.*

A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.

Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

subnet mask

DNS address

host IP address

default gateway address*

31. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

172.16.16.255

172.16.20.255

172.16.19.255*

172.16.23.255

172.16.255.255

32. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/29********

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28

33. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?

2

3

4*

5

6

34. A  logical    topology influences the type of network framing and media access control that will be used.

35. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a password.

Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will require authentication.*

Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.

Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.

36. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?

It will remove encryption from all passwords.

It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.​

It will not reverse any encryption.*

It will reverse only the enable password encryption.

37. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

38. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

39. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

store-and-forward switching

fast-forward switching*

CRC switching

fragment-free switching*

QOS switching

40. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)

Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.

A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to it.*

An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.

An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.

Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.*

41. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

to identify the broadcast address of the destination network

to identify the host address of the destination host

to identify faulty frames

to identify the network address of the destination network*

42. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

234.17.10.9

234.16.12.10

236.17.12.6

236.17.12.10*

43. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

44. Fill in the blank.

Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide the flexibility to add new modules have a   Modular    configuration.

45.


Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?

11

12

13*

14

46. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the networK.*

A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREOUEST message.

The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and sub net masK to be assigned, the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default gateway.

If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a unicast DHCPREOUEST message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP information.

47. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

EAP
PSK
WEP*
WPA

48. A network administrator notices that the throughput on the network appears lower than expected when compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which three factors can
explain this difference? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic*
the type of data encapsulation in use
the type of traffic*
the number and type of network devices that the data is crossing*
the bandwidth of the connection to the ISP
the reliability of the network backbone

49. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER*
DHCPPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK

50. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses console line to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

51. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation*
cladding
immunity to electrical hazards
woven copper braid or metallic foil

52. How many bits would need to be borrowed if a network admin were given the IP addressing scheme of 172.16.0.0/16 and needed no more than 16 subnet with equal number of hosts?

10
12
2
4*
8

53. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

54.

It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is: The PC2 will be able to ping 192.168.1.1*

55. Which statement best describes the operation of the File Transfer Protocol?

An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP server uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

 56. A client is establishing a TCP session with a server. How is the acknowledgment number in the response segment to the client determined?

The acknowledgment number field is modified by adding 1 to the randomly chosen initial sequence number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an acknowledgment packet and synchronization packet back to the client.
The acknowledgment number field uses a random source port number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an acknowledgment packet back to the client.

57. Why does layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP and subnet Mask?

to identify host address and destination host;
to identify network address of destination host;
to identify faulty frames;
to identify broadcast address of destination network;

58. There was also a question about if you activated service password encryption in the past and you prompt “no service password encryption” what password are modified ?

no password at all;
password of the lines are in clear;
login password;
?

59. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

message encapsulation
flow control
message encoding
access method

60. What is the primary reason to subnet IPv6 prefixes?
to conserve IPv6 addresses
to avoid wasting IPv6 addresses
to conserve IPv6 prefixes
to create a hierarchical Layer 3 network design

61. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
multicast
global unicast
link-local
loopback

62. Which statement describes data throughput?
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media under perfect conditions.
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.
It indicates the capacity of a particular medium to carry data.
It is the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP.

CCNA Wireless Chapter 18 and 19 Exam Answers

What is a WCS
Wireless control system

What is a WCS used for
To configure and monitor one or more controllers and their associated access points

The WCS has the same (5 things) as a WLC
1) Config
2) Perf. monitoring
3) Security
4) Fault management
5) Acc. options

WCS can provide a __________ view of multiple controllers and managed access points
Graphical

What protocol does WCS manage devices with?
SNMPv1-3

What operating systems can WCS run on?
Windows and Linux

What are the 3 versions of WCS?
1) Cisco WCS base
2) Cisco WCS location
3) Cisco WCS plus

What are some functions the Cisco WCS base fulfills?
Rogue AP detection
Ad-hoc detection
Containment functions for rogue devices
Map-based organization of AP RF coverage areas

The Cisco WCS location appliance performs computation based on _______ information from _______ WLC’s
RSSI info, from WLC’s

The WCS location compares what two things to map out a topology?
1) Real-time client RSSI
2) RF building characteristics

WCS + location appliance can display historical location data for up to ____________ clients
2500

The only actual difference between the WCS location and the WCS plus is…
High availability

What Windows OS is compatible with WCS?
Server 2003 SP2 32bit

What Linux server OS is compatible with WCS?
RHEL server 5.x 32bit

Are any 64 bit Linux or Windows OS’s compatible with WCS?
No

The network summary page:
Shows the number of controllers, number of AP’s which controllers handle, total clients on those AP’s, out of service radios etc.

The controller summary page:
Shows specific information on a certain controller

The client page:
Shows information on clients connected to AP’s

The maps page:
Displays a topology of the network with colour codes for RSSI

RF fingerprinting is…
The calculation of the location of tracked devices

How does RF fingerprinting work?
Resolves location coordinates by determining how RF signals are received at every grid point within a building

What predicts the RF signals?
The WCS

The location appliance is Linux and Java based/

The interface for the location appliance is defined in SOAP/XML

What is SOAP?
Simple object access protocol

SNMP operates between location appliances and the network

The 4 main applications for the location appliance are:
1) The location appliance can track 1500 mobile devices for 30 days
2) Work-flow automation and people tracking
3) WLAN security and NW control
4) RF capacity management/visibility

What two things are important to know when upgrading a WLC?
1) Software version
2) Hardware platform

Where would you find the software version in the GUI?
SUMMARY—> MONITOR menu

Where would you find the software version in the CLI?
show sysinfo

To find hardware platform on the GUI:
INVENTORY —-> CONTROLLER menu

To find hardware platform on CLI:
show inventory

What are 3 ways to upgrade a WLC?
1) web interface
2) CLI
3) WCS

What protocols are required when accessing the web interface?
https, http, IP

What two files do all upgrade methods require?
1) Image archive
2) Boot loader

What series of WLC does not need both file types?
The 2100 series WLC

What does the image archive contain?
1) RTO – real time OS
2) Shell scripts/java apps to run GUI/CLI
3) AP firmware code

What is the naming format for the image archive?
AIR-WLCxxxx[version].aes

What does the boot loader contain?
boot strap coding

What is the naming format for the boot loader?
AIR-WLCxxxx-ER.aes

On versions 4.1 or earlier, what was not required because it was included in the image archive?
The boot loader

Can the 2100 series WLC have its bootloader updated?
No

Both the 2 files for upgrading are encrypted and compressed with
AES

A ________ server is used to put the software onto the controller
TFTP

The TFTP server must be able to handle files larger than _____
32mb

To upgrade with the web interface what is the chain of clicks
commands > download file to controller window

The 5 parameters to enter when upgrading the software are:
1) TFTP server IP
2) File path
3) Maximum retries
4) Timeout
5) File name

What chain of commands is required to upgrade via the controller?
1) transfer download datatype code
2) transfer download mode tftp
3) transfer download serverip
4) transfer download path
5) transfer download filename
6) transfer download start
7) reset system

When the WLC is upgraded, the software on _____________ ______ is also upgraded
associated AP’s

How many AP’s can be upgraded at a time from the controller?
10

Configuration files from upgrade are stored in _________ and are executed when the controller ________
NVRAM, reboots

Configuration files on a WLC are in ____ format
XML

XML files have a ______________________ attached to them
file integrity check

What happens if the integrity of the XML config file has been compromised?
it is not loaded

What performs this integrity or CRC check?
The controller

What happens to config files being uploaded to TFTP servers on software versions 5.2 and higher?
They are converted from XML files to plaintext

The two steps to uploading config files are:
1) Set upload parameters
2) Initiate the upload

What is the CLI process for this
1) Transfer upload mode tftp
2) Transfer upload datatype config
3) Transfer upload serverip
4) Transfer upload filename

Encrypting config files prior to transmission:
1) Transfer encrypt enable
2) Transfer encrypt set-key
3) Transfer upload

Are incremental config downloads supported?
no

To download config files what chain of commands is used?
1) Transfer download mode {tftp | ftp}
2) Transfer download datatype config
3) Transfer download serverip
4) Transfer download path
5) Transfer download filename

If encryption was enabled during upload what chain of commands is necessary?
1) Transfer encrypt enable
2) Transfer encrypt secret key
3) Transfer download start
4) Reset system

CCNA Wireless Chapter 17 Exam Answers

The 4 main threats to wireless NW’s are:
1) Ad-hoc NW formation
2) Rogue AP’s
3) Client missassociations
4) Directed wireless network attacks

What exactly is client missassociation?
An SSID profile is saved and active scanning is in operation, resulting in a client connecting to a network without knowing

What are 4 examples of directed wireless network attacks?
1) DoS
2) Recon probes
3) Authent. penetration
4) MITM attacks

How are directed wireless network attacks most often mitigated?
By authenticating and encrypting management frames.

What is this process of mitigation called exactly?
MFP: management frame protection

Management frames are usually sent unauthenticated and unencrypted

What does MFP do to management frames?
It digitally signs them

The two MFP modes are:
1) Infrastructure
2) Client

In infrastructure MFP,
A hash is generated for every management frame and placed before the FCS

Client MFP is only available with…
CCX 5+ “Cisco compatible extensions”

What does Client MFP/CCX do to management frames
It uses 802.11i to encrypt mgmt frames between the client and the AP

What does Client MFP/CCX defend most effectively against?
MITM and DoS attacks

In Client MFP/CCX, a key is generated for each AP

Why can’t mobile devices associate with MFP LAN’s?
They don’t have the processing power required for the extra encryption/authentication techniques

2 older security methods are:
1) SSID —> wrong SSID? no association
2) MAC authentication

What is open authentication?
It means no authentication key is required

What is the 4 step process to open authentication?
1) Probe
2) Probe response
3) Auth
4) Auth response

In WEP authentication, a ____ key is used to encrypt traffic
WEP key

In WEP, the header is not encrypted is not encrypted, but the the data is is

What encryption type does WEP use?
RC4

What are the 3 different sizes for WEP keys?
40 bits
104 bits
128 bits

In WEP, every key is combined with an….
Initialization vector

What is the basic process of WEP association?
1) Auth request
2) Challenge text packet
3) Challenge text encrypted by supplicant
4) If AP able to decrypt properly supplicant has the right key

EAP is defined under which two RFC’s?
2284, and 3748

EAP usually works alongside..
802.1x or RADIUS

The 4 EAP message types are
1) Request — to supplicant
2) Response — from supplicant
3) Success
4) Failure

What is Cisco LEAP?
A proprietary username/PW based auth. system between a client and a RADIUS server

What is Cisco LEAP’s weakness?
Susceptible to eavesdropping

EAP-TLS is defined under…
RFC 2716

EAP-TLS uses… _________ for authentication
Digital certificates

EAP-TLS uses…__________ to secure communications between client and RADIUS server
PKI

In EAP-TLS, the ________ and __________ authenticate to eachother
client and server

What is TLS based on?
SSL 3.0

What did EAP-TTLS add to EAP-TLS?
Tunneling

PEAP is very similar to..
EAP-TLS

What are the 3 authentication options for PEAP?
1) EAP-MSCHAP V.2
2) EAP-GTC
3) EAP-OTP

What is fast-reconnect?
Roaming b/t AP’s made seamless b/c TLS session ID’s are cached by WLC

The 3 roles of the 802.1x framework are…
1) Supplicant
2) Authenticator
3) Authentication server

It can be said that the authenticator controls __________ access to the network
Physical

If a Cisco ACS is being used as the Authentication server, more _____________ methods of authentication are available
Diverse

802.1x: After the client sends a probe request to the AP, the AP will respond with a…
AP probe response which contains sec params.

What happens after the AP sends its probe response?
The client is associated but traffic is blocked until 802.1x auth is complete

The 802.1x authentication challenge is encrypted by
EAP

How does the client response to this challenge?
With a credential response

What does authenticator do with the credential response?
Converts it to a RADIUS access request and sends it to the AS

What does the AS do upon receiving the RADIUS access request?
It responds with a challenge that specifies what credentials are required of the supplicant

What happens if the client responds with the correct credentials?
The AS transmits a success message and encryption key

WPA2 is aka
802.11i

What is a PMK?
Pairwise master key,
It is created on a RADIUS server when a client authenticates

Where is the PMK sent?
From the AS to the authenticator

What is PMK used for?
To encrypt the exchange of the temporal session key

What is the PMK derived from that results in the authenticator and supplicant having the same one?
It is derived from client information

PMK’s are used to make PTK’s and GTK’s.

PTK’s and GTK’s are made in a
4 way handshake process

WPA2-PSK is aka
personal mode

WPA2-PSK is encrypted with…
A 256 bit PMK

CCNA Wireless Chapter 15 and 16 Exam Answers

The Cisco mobility express solution can be… (2 things)
1) Standalone
2) Controller based

The Cisco mobility express solution is part of the…
SBCS: Cisco smart business communication system

The SBCS contains what 4 things
1) Cisco UC (unified communications) 500 series
2) Cisco unified IP phones
3) Cisco monitor director
4) Cisco mobility solution

How many clients can the Cisco UC 500 support?
48

The Cisco mobility solution consists of what 2 things
1) 526 Wi. Express controller
2) 521 Wi. Express AP

What are the 526 and 521 managed by
The Cisco config assistant

How many controllers and how many AP’s can be used in the cisco mobility solution?
2 controllers, 6 AP’s each = 12

The 521 AP has ________ antennas
internal

Can the 521 AP associate with any other controllers?
no.

Does the cisco mobility express solution support enterprise level LWAPP?
No, it is a reduced feature version

When doing the CLI setup, the normal selection for the 526 is…
Run primary image

Connection to the controller GUI is made via what protocol
HTTPS

When using the CCA, you must create a…
Community (group name for network)

What version of CCA is required to migrate standalone 521 AP’s to LW AP’s?
1.5 or later

The CCA discovers WLC’s via what two things
1) IP discovery
2) CDP

What is the Windows WiLAN config tool called?
WZC: Windows wireless zero configuration utility

What happens if profiles have already been configured on the WZC?
It tries to connect to those networks automatically

WZC clients use _________ scanning
Active

Upon boot, WZC reports any networks being ________
Broadcast

What is active null scanning?
Probe requests that are sent with blank SSID fields

What happens if the WZC cannot establish any connections to infrastructure networks?
It tries ad-hoc networks

What happens if no ad-hoc networks are available for the WZC client to connect to?
It becomes an ad-hoc node and sends out beacons

WLAN profile on a MAC are handled by
AIRPORT/AIRPORT EXTREME

What is the chain of clicks to configure a profile on AIRPORT
Open apple > System prefs > NW > Airport

In Linux that command line tool for joining WiLAN’s is called
iwconfig

The graphical version of Linux’s WiLAN config utility is called
NetworkManager

What is CAM?
Constant awake mode, prevents NIC’s from going into any kind of power saving mode

What is the ADU?
The aironet desktop utility, used for configuration of WiLAN profiles

What is the ACAU?
Aironet client admin. utlity – for pushing out ADU to multiple clients

What is the SSU?
Cisco site survey tool, a minimal site survey program

What is the ASTU?
Aironet system tray utility

What 3 advantages does ADU have over WZC?
1) Channel determination
2) Auth. / sec. config determination
3) RSSI/SNR determination

3 main profiles in ADU are
1) Unsecure
2) 802.1x
3) WPA/WPA2/CCKM

How long are 802.1x WEP keys?
40-104 bits

Imported ADU profile have what extension?
.prf

The 4 connection quality colours in the SSU are..
Green, yellow, orange, red

What is connection quality quantified by by default?
dBm

What is the SSC?
Cisco secure services client, provides L2 802.1x user/device authentication

How are SSCAU profiles saved?
As XML files

CCNA Wireless Chapter 12, 13 and 14 Exam Answers

Mobility is not synonymous with hot spot connectivity , rather it means a client can move between APs while keeping its IP address

The two types of client mobility are…
1) L2 mobility – client roams AP’s in same subnet
2) L3 mobility – client roams to AP in different subnet

What is a mobility group?
A group of WLC’s which share information with eachother

What is the maximum amount of WLC’s allowed in a mobility group?
24

What are the four requirements when creating mobility groups?
1) IP connectivity between WLC’s
2) Same workgroup name
3) Same virtual interface IP (ex. 1.1.1.1 in labs)
4) The MAC and IP of every other device in the group

What is a mobility domain?
The scope of communication between WLC’s in a WLAN

Mobility groups can be used to isolate roaming between different VLAN’s

Can clients roam between mobility domains?
No

What 4 things are required when a client is roaming between controllers?
1) Same mobility domain
2) Same revision of code
3) All AP’s need to have same SSID’s available
4) Again, virtual interface IP has to be the same

What is a simple way to describe intra-controller roaming?
New AP, same WLC

In intra-controller roaming, when is the client entry made in the database?
After the first AP association

What exactly is PKC?
Proactive key caching, it creates faster roaming times for 802.11i clients

What is a simple way to describe inter-controller roaming?
A client roams between two different WLC’s

What is the basic 4 step process of a client performing inter-controller roaming?
1) The client roams from WLC1 to WLC2
2) WLC2 makes a mobility announcement in order to find the WLC that has the client’s MAC (which is WLC1)
3) WLC1 responds to this announcement, handshakes and ack’s
4) This process moves the client DB entry to WLC2

How is L3 roaming accomplished?
Through a process called EoIP (ethernet over IP).
It is a tunnel created between controllers.
Original controller called “anchor”, the new controller is called the “foreign”

What are the two types of L3 roaming?
1) Symmetric
2) Asymmetric

The 3 primary components of WLC configuration are:
1) WLAN – the SSID and its corresponding parameters
2) Interface – virt. conn. to IP stack
3) Port – phys. connection to wired LAN

Two types of interface on a WLC are:
1) Static
2) Dynamic

Out of the two types of interfaces on a WLC, which one is created by the WLC and which one is created by an administrator?
Static: WLC
Dynamic: Administrator

Describe the management interface:
For in-band management
Used to communicate with other NW devs.
Also used by LAP in discovery phase

Describe the AP manager interface:
This is how the WLC communicates with LAP’s

Describe the virtual interface:
Used by WLC to terminate VPN’s from LAP’s, for DHCP relay connections, mobility management etc

What is special about the virtual interface?
It should not have a routable IP

Describe the service port:
For out-of-band management

What is special about the service port?
No trunking support

Describe the role of dynamic interfaces:
They link SSID’s to VLAN’s

What is the maximum amount of dynamic interfaces allowed on a WLC?
512

What 4 roles can an AP fulfill?
1) AP
2) Repeater
3) WG bridge
4) Scanner

3 things required for converting an autonomous AP to an LWAPP LAP are:
1) Upgrade tool
2) IPSU tool
3) LAP IOS image

What version does the LAP IOS image have to be?
12.3 (7) JA or above

What does the text file contain which is used to upgrade the IOS for LAP purposes?
1) IP of AP
2) Username/PW for telnet auth
3) Enable mode PW

What IP is used for TFTP servers pushing out autonomous AP IOS images?
It must be on the 10.0.0.0 /24 NW

CCNA Wireless Chapter 10 and 11 Exam Answers

The CUWN has 5 elements, which are…
1) Client devices
2) Mobility platform
3) Network unification
4) Network management
5) Unified advanced services

Cisco compatible extensions devices have:
1) Wireless mobility
2) QoS
3) NW management
4) Enhanced security

NW unification is…
A migration path into routing/switching platforms via WLC’s

The WLAN management interface for Cisco is called ..
WCS: Wireless control system

The control plane is…
AES-CCM encrypted

The data plane is..
Not encrypted

In a LWAPP header, a data message is C code _ and a control message is C code _
0, 1

Layer 3 LWAPP data traffic uses ports…
UDP src:1024 dst:12222

Layer 3 LWAPP control traffic uses ports…
UDP src:1024 dst:12223

4 stages of AP association to a WLC:
1) Discovery phase
2) Join phase
3) Authorization phase
4) Configuration phase

What LWAPP mode is attempted first?
L2

Cisco prefers L3 discovery process over L2

The management IP of a WLC is handed out via…
Option 43 in a DHCP handout

For an AP to authenticate to a WLC, a _______________ is needed
x.509 certificate

What 2 types of x.509 certificates are there?
1) MIC: manufacturer installed cert
2) SSC: self-signed cert

If authentication is successsful, a _____________ is sent from the WLC to the LAP
Join response

CCNA Wireless Chapter 9 Exam Answers

In a wireless model, frames generally go from a lightweight AP to a WLC

A WLC is…
A WiLAN controller

Active scanning is…
When a client sends probes out

Passive scanning is..
When a client waits for beacons

What comes first, the auth request or the assoc request frame when a client attempts to connect to an AP?
The auth request comes first

Briefly count off the steps for wireless association to an AP
1) Client sends probe
2) AP sends probe response
3) Client sends auth request
4) AP sends auth response
5) Success message sent
6) Association request sent by client
7) Association response sent by AP
8) Client uses RSSI and SNR to determine what speed to send at

Management frames are sent at the …
Lowest possible rate

Data headers are sent at the…
Lowest possible rate

Actual data is sent at the…
Highest possible rate

If a wireless client is sending to a host on a different subnet and has never done so before, it will need to perform the ___ operation to find the ____ address of the __________ gateway
ARP, MAC, default

In an ARP frame sent from a client, the source address is the…the destination address is the…and the receiving address is the…
Host sending ARP
Broadcast because its an ARP broadcast
AP

What interframe space do ACK frames use?
SIFS – short interframe space

The LWAPP adds a ____________ _____________ frames travelling from the AP to the WLC
6 byte header

Who translates 802.11 frames into 802.3 frames in a centralized wireless setup?
The wireless LAN controller

The two main types of WLAN implementation methods are:
1) Distributed (autonomous AP’s)
2) Centralized (LAP + WLC)

WLC’s are responsible for… (5 things)
1) Security policies
2) Intrusion prevention
3) RF management
4) QoS
5) Mobility

LAP’s handle real-time MAC layer services while WLC’s handle non-real-time MAC layer services

Non real time MAC layer services handled by the WLC include:
1) Authentication
2) Association and reassociation (aka mobility)
3) Frame translation and bridging

Public networks broadcast their SSID in a beacon
But private networks wait for probe-requests

In a distributed setup, the address fields are setup as follows in the 802.11 frame:
Field 1: AP = receiving address
Field 2: Source address
Field 3: Destination address
Field 4: Unused

The Ethertype of LWAPP is…
0xBBBB

LWAPP can operate at ______ or ______
Layer 2 or layer 3

If LWAPP is operating at L2, do AP’s need IP’s?
No.

If LWAPP is operating at L3, do AP’s need IP’s?
Yes.

The trunking protocol is called…
802.1q

The trunking protocol adds a ____________ to 802.3 frames
4 byte header

The header added by 802.1q contains what 2 things
1) TPID
2) TCI

The TCI contains…
User priority, 1 bit canonical format, 12 bit VLAN ID

What are the reserved VLAN ID’s?
1 = default
1002 = FDDI
1003 = TR
1004 = FDDINET
1005 = TRNET

CCNA Wireless Chapter 7 Exam Answers

MAC layer provides 3 services, which are
1) Asynchronous data service
2) Security services
3) Media access control

With asynchronous data service…
Peer LLC’s exchange MSDU’s

With security services, there are 3 options:
Authentication, WEP or 802.11i

Every frame contains 3 things:
1) MAC header
2) Variable length frame body
3) FCS

The frame body is specific to…
1 of the 3 frame types in 802.11

How long are CRC’s?
4 bytes

The 3 802.11 frame types are:
1) Data
2) Control
3) Management

What do control frames do in 802.11?
Send CTS/RTS, ACK etc.

What do management frames do in 802.11?
Send associations and beacons

Management frames are ______________ to upper layer protocols
Not forwarded

802.11 is a CSMA/CA network, meaning it uses physical and virtual carrier sense mechanisms

Virtual carrier sense mechanisms….
Announce the use of media (NAV)

NAV stands for:
Network allocation vector

The distributed coordination function simply means the exchange of…
RTS’s and CTS’s

Both RTS’s and CTS’s contain a…
Duration field

The duration field is…
The time to tx data frame, ack frame, and inter fame spaces

Four diff. types of IFS’s:
1) SIFS: short inter frame space
2) PIFS: point coordination function inter frame space
3) DIFS: distributed coordination function inter frame space
4) EIFS: extended inter frame space

What does PCF do?
Creates contention free access to wireless network for tx devices, only available in infrastructure networks because AP is the polling master and central point of this optional method of access

The MAC layer can intentially _________ MSDU’s
reorder

When the MAC layer is reordering MSDU’s, what type of frames get priority?
unicast

The frame control field in the MAC header is how long
2 bytes

The protocol version field would be what for the current version?
00

The type bits would be set to what for each type of MAC frame
1) 00 – mgmt
2) 01- ctrl
3) 10 – data

The subtype field in the frame control field consists of…
Additional info about whatever frame type has been specified in the type section

The last half of the frame control field is…
1 byte of flags

If the destination is the distribution system, the To DS bit would be set to…
1

If the source is the distribution system, the From DS bit would be set to…
1

If a wireless distribution system is in play, the From and To DS bits are set to
1

If an ad-hoc network is in play, the From and To DS bits are set to
0

If the More flag is set to 1, what does this mean?
It means the MPDU is too large

What does 802.11 do with MPDU’s which are too large
It can fragment them like TCP does

If the retry flag is set to 1…
The frame has been transmitted before

If the power management flag is set to 1, the station is in
Power save mode

If the more data flag is set to 1….
The station is telling the receiver that the transmission is not complete and it should not enter power save mode

If the protected frame flag is set to 1…
The body is encrypted

If the order flag is set to 1…
An upper layer protocol requested strict order transmission, meaning the MAC layer will not reorder anything

The duration field has 2 functions:
1) Remaining duration
2) AID (association ID)

In the duration field, if bit 15 is 0 the field is…
The remaining duration

In the duration field, if bit 15 is 1 the field is…
The AID of the txing station

There are ___ address fields in an 802.11 frame
4

Data frames use how many address fields in an 802.11 frame?
3 or 4

Control and management frames can use as little as 1 address field in an 802.11 frame

The first 3 bytes of a MAC addr =
The OID of the vendor

The last 3 bytes of a MAC addr =
The unique ID of the MAC entity

5 types of addr’s in 802.11:
1) BSSID (ID’s boundaries)
2) Src
3) Dst (final dst)
4) Tx addr (last to tx)
5) Rx addr (next to rx)

The sequence control field has 2 subfields which are:
1) Fragment # (4 bits)
2) Frame seq # (12 bits)

The max frame body size for unencrypted frames is…
2304 bytes

The max frame body size for encrypted frames is…
2346 bytes

CCNA Wireless Chapter 6 Exam Answers

802.11e is…
QoS standard for WLANs

802.11h is…
Transmit power management
Changes transmit power to avoid creating interference for other devices

802.11i is…
Security standard

The original 802.11 standard used…
FHSS and DSSS to achieve 1 and 2 mbps

802.11 is a ___________ standard
layer 2 standard

802.11 is focussed on the delivery of…
MSDU’s between peer LLC devices

802.11 defines…
MAC and PHY sublayer characteristics

The 2 lesser used 802.11 standards are…
802.11ac – bonded channel 802.11n
802.11ad – WiGig 60ghz ISM band

LLC sublayer makes 802.11 look like…
every other L2 protocol to other high level protocols

The MAC layer ________, but the LLC layer __________
changes, stays the same

LLC is independent of…
1) topology
2) trans medium
3) MAC techniques used

LLC provides 3 basic services:
1) Unack’d connectionless
2) Ack’d conn-oriented
3) Ack’d connectionless

The 3 purposes of control frames are…
1) Information
2) Supervisory
3) Unnumbered

A 0 in the IG header bit means
individual address

A 1 in the IG header bit means
group address

A 0 in the CR header bit means
command

A 1 in the CR header bit means
response

In control frames, what does 00 signify?
Receive ready

In control frames, what does 01 signify?
Reject

In control frames, what does 10 signify?
Receiver not ready

In control frames, what does 11 signify?
Undefined

STA’s are generally not a _______
Fixed location

STA’s can be ___________ in 802.11, but not 802.3
Hidden from eachother

802.11 can handle 2 types of stations…
Mobile and portable

In 802.11 context, mobile means… and portable means….
Mobile means device accesses LAN in motion
Portable means device can move but is stationary upon accessing LAN

The PLCP… (PHY layer definition)
Maps MAC sub layer data units to a framing format

The PMD…(PHY layer definition)
Defines characteristics of tx/rx through wireless medium

The PLME…(PHY layer definition)
Manages local PHY functions with MAC management entity

4 speeds of 802.11b
1,2,5.5 and 11mbps

802.11b uses DSSS and CCK

The chipping rate of 802.11b is…
11mhz

802.11b uses the same PLCP as
The original 802.11

Total number of 802.11b channels…
14

Actual allowed number of channels for 802.11b for each country:
US: 11
ETSI: 13
JAPAN: All 14

Power levels for 802.11b…
US: 36dbm
ETSI: 20dbm

In 802.11b, channels 1.6 and 11 are referred to as..
Set 1

In 802.11b, channels 2,3,4,5,7,8,9,10 are referred to as…
Set 2

Channels 1, 6, and 11 exact frequencies are…
2412, 2439, and 2462 mhz

802.11a has how many channels
8

802.11a operates at what throughput potentially…
54mbps

Does 802.11a have any backwards compatibility?
No.

OFDM divides…
Communication channel into equally spaced frequency bands

OFDM creates ____ subcarriers each at _____ distance from eachother
52, 312.5khz

How many OFDM subcarriers are for data? and for syncing?
48, 4

OFDM is less sensitive to ________ than DSSS
Multipath interference

Four 802.11a modulation techniques…
BPSK
QPSK
16QAM
64QAM

802.11g throughput…
54mbps @ 2.4ghz

What is used for 20mbps+ connections in 802.11g?
OFDM

What is used for speeds under 20mbps in 802.11g?
CCK

What is protection mode?
B clients on a G network are protected from OFDM which causes a significant decrease in throughput of 802.11g

Max possible throughput of 802.11n?
600mbps

802.11n operates at…
2.4 and 5ghz

2 techniques for 802.11n
1) MIMO – uses maximum ratio combining
2) Channel bonding
3) Frame aggregation – multiple LLC’s put into one MAC frame

3 legacy modes of 802.11n…
1) greenfield (HT) – assumes no legacy devices
2) Legacy mode (non-HT) – 20mhz channels only, no channel bonding
3) HT mixed mode – RTS/CTS must be a/g format

802.11h is required by…
ETSI for 5ghz range

2 main features of 802.11h…
1) Dynamic frequency selection to avoid interference
2) Transmit control power – minimizes interference on other systems

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2018