CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 9 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. Which two characteristics are associated with UDP sessions? (Choose two.)

Destination devices receive traffic with minimal delay.*

Transmitted data segments are tracked.

Destination devices reassemble messages and pass them to an application.

Received data is unacknowledged.*

Unacknowledged data packets are retransmitted.

 

2. What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?

The message is lost because FTP does not use a reliable delivery method.

The FTP source host sends a query to the destination host.

The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.*

The entire FTP message is re-sent.

 

3. A host device needs to send a large video file across the network while providing data communication to other users. Which feature will allow different communication streams to occur at the same time, without having a single data stream using all available bandwidth?

window size

multiplexing*

port numbers

acknowledgments

 

4. What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a specific application?

registered port*

private port

dynamic port

source port

 

5. What type of information is included in the transport header?

destination and source logical addresses

destination and source physical addresses

destination and source port numbers*

encoded application data

 

6. What is a socket?

the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address

the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number*

the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers

the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers

 

7. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?

0 to 255

0 to 1023*

256 – 1023

1024 – 49151

 

8. Which flag in the TCP header is used in response to a received FIN in order to terminate connectivity between two network devices?

FIN

ACK*

SYN

RST

 

9. What is a characteristic of a TCP server process?

Every application process running on the server has to be configured to use a dynamic port number.

There can be many ports open simultaneously on a server, one for each active server application.*

An individual server can have two services assigned to the same port number within the same transport layer services.

A host running two different applications can have both configured to use the same server port.

 

10. Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)

ACK*

FIN

PSH

RST

SYN*

URG

 

11. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?

1 segment

10 segments*

100 segments

1000 segments

 

12. Which factor determines TCP window size?

the amount of data to be transmitted

the number of services included in the TCP segment

the amount of data the destination can process at one time*

the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time

 

13. During a TCP session, a destination device sends an acknowledgment number to the source device. What does the acknowledgment number represent?

the total number of bytes that have been received

one number more than the sequence number

the next byte that the destination expects to receive*

the last sequence number that was sent by the source

 

14. What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments?

port numbers

sequence numbers*

acknowledgment numbers

fragment numbers

 

15. What does TCP do if the sending source detects network congestion on the path to the destination?

The source host will send a request for more frequent acknowledgments to the destination.

The source will decrease the amount of data that it sends before it must receive acknowledgements from the destination.*

The destination will request retransmission of the entire message.

The source will acknowledge the last segment that is sent and include a request for a smaller window size in the message.

 

16. What is a characteristic of UDP?

UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.

Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.

UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received.*

UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.

 

17. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?

It just sends the datagrams.*

It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.

It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.

It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.

 

18. What happens if the first packet of a TFTP transfer is lost?

The client will wait indefinitely for the reply.

The TFTP application will retry the request if a reply is not received.*

The next-hop router or the default gateway will provide a reply with an error code.

The transport layer will retry the query if a reply is not received.

 

19. A host device is receiving live streaming video. How does the device account for video data that is lost during transmission?

The device will immediately request a retransmission of the missing data.

The device will use sequence numbers to pause the video stream until the correct data arrives.

The device will delay the streaming video until the entire video stream is received.

The device will continue receiving the streaming video, but there may be a momentary disruption.*

 

20. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

to ensure the fastest possible download speed

because HTTP is a best-effort protocol

because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

because HTTP requires reliable delivery*

 

21. When is UDP preferred to TCP?

when a client sends a segment to a server

when all the data must be fully received before any part of it is considered useful

when an application can tolerate some loss of data during transmission*

when segments must arrive in a very specific sequence to be processed successfully

 

22. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)

SMTP*

FTP*

SNMP

HTTP*

TFTP

DHCP

23. Refer to the exhibit. Consider a datagram that originates on the PC and that is destined for the web server. Match the IP addresses and port numbers that are in that datagram to the description. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

The number of broadcast domains is increased.

The size of the broadcast domain is increased.*

The number of collision domains is reduced.

The size of the collision domain is increased.

 

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there?

 

1

2

3

4*

 

3. What are two reasons a network administrator might want to create subnets? (Choose two.)

simplifies network design

improves network performance*

easier to implement security policies*

reduction in number of routers needed

reduction in number of switches needed

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

 

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128*

255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.240

 

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

 

IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33*

IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46

IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1

 

6. If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?

256

254

62

32

16

14*

 

7. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128

255.255.255.224*

255.255.255.240

 

8. How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?

510

512

1022*

1024

2046

2048

 

9. How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks?

two

three*

four

five

 

10. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224*

255.255.255.240

255.255.255.248

255.255.255.252

 

11. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.16/28

192.168.1.64/27*

192.168.1.128/27

192.168.1.96/28*

192.168.1.192/28

 

12. A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.248. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?

4

6*

8

10

12

 

13. Refer to the exhibit.

Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many total host addresses are unused in the assigned subnets?

 

56

60

64

68

72*

 

14. Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having to remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?

 

10.16.10.160/26

10.16.10.128/28

10.16.10.64/27*

10.16.10.224/26

10.16.10.240/27

10.16.10.240/28

 

15. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

random static addresses to improve security

addresses from different subnets for redundancy

predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*

dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

 

16. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

It eliminates most address configuration errors.*

It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.

It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.

It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.

It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

 

17. A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

254

251*

252

253

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the sub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the subnet section to indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site?

 

0

4

16*

256

 

19. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

2001:DB8:BC15

2001:DB8:BC15:A*

2001:DB8:BC15:A:1

2001:DB8:BC15:A:12

 

20. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60

 

21. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
192.168.1.68 -> 192.168.1.64/27
— not scored —
192.168.1.48 -> 192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.121 -> 192.168.1.96/27

 

22. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
192.168.0.192 /27   -> Network C
— not scored —
192.168.0.0 /25       -> Network A
192.168.0.224 /30  -> Network D
192.168.0.128 /26   -> Network B

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 7 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

32*

64

128

256

 

2. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

subnet portion

network portion*

logical portion

host portion*

physical portion

broadcast portion

 

3. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

network address

multicast address

host address*

broadcast address

 

4. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

to uniquely identify a host on a network

to identify whether the address is public or private

to determine the subnet to which the host belongs*

to mask the IP address to outsiders

 

5. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

255.255.255.248

255.255.224.0

255.255.240.0*

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.192

 

6. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

limited broadcast

multicast

directed broadcast*

unicast

 

7. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*

The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.*

Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

 

8. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.1.1.1*

172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.16.4.4*

192.168.5.5*

224.6.6.6

 

9. Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.)

trunking

dual stack*

encapsulation

tunneling*

multiplexing

 

10. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB : 0000 : 0000 : 0057?

3FFE : 1044 :: AB :: 57

3FFE : 1044 :: 00AB :: 0057

3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : AB :: 57*

3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : 00AB :: 0057

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 57

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 0057

 

11. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

global unicast

link-local*

loopback

unique local

 

12. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)

multicast

loopback*

link-local*

anycast

broadcast

 

13. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP*

a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network*

 

14. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

SLAAC

stateless DHCPv6*

stateful DHCPv6

RA and EUI-64

 

15. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?

ARPv6

DHCPv6

ICMPv6*

UDP

 

16. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device

the IP address of the router nearest the destination device

the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source*

the destination device is reachable through the network*

the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

 

17. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

 

18. What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?

The host is cabled properly.

The default gateway address is correctly configured.

All hosts on the local link are available.

The link-local address is correctly configured.

IP is properly installed on the host.*

 

19. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message

when the RTT value reaches zero

when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message

when the value in the TTL field reaches zero*

when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

 

20. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

TTL field

CRC field

Hop Limit field*

Time Exceeded field

 

21. Fill in the blank.

The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is 149 .

 

22. Fill in the blank.
The binary equivalent of the decimal number 232 is 11101000

23. Fill in the blank.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F? 63

 

24. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)

169.254.1.5 -> a link-local address
192.0.2.123 -> a TEST-NET address
240.2.6.255 -> an experimental address
172.19.20.5 -> a private address
127.0.0.1 -> a loopback address

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 6 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. Which characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model allows carrying packets for multiple types of communications among many hosts?

the de-encapsulation of headers from lower layers

the selection of paths for and direct packets toward the destination

the ability to operate without regard to the data that is carried in each packet*

the ability to manage the data transport between processes running on hosts

 

2. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection*

operates independently of the network media*

retransmits packets if errors occur

re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end

guarantees delivery of packets

 

3. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?

Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.

Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host.*

Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport services are not available.

The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.

 

4. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?

Time-to-Live*

Sequence Number

Acknowledgment Number

Differentiated Services

 

5. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?

Protocol*

Identification

Version

Differentiated Services

 

6. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?

smaller-sized header

little requirement for processing checksums

smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses

efficient packet handling*

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which route from the PC1 routing table will be used to reach PC2?

*

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet?

 

FastEthernet0/0

FastEthernet0/1

Serial0/0/0

Serial0/0/1*

 

9. What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?

static route

default route

directly connected route*

dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP

 

10. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

directly-connected routes

local routes

remote routes*

C and L source routes

 

11. Which statement describes a hardware feature of a Cisco 1941 router that has the default hardware configuration?

It does not have an AUX port.

It has three FastEthernet interfaces for LAN access.

It has two types of ports that can be used to access the console.*

It does not require a CPU because it relies on Compact Flash to run the IOS.

 

12. Following default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

Perform the POST routine.

Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.*

Load the bootstrap program from ROM.

Load the running-config file from RAM.

 

13. What are two types of router interfaces? (Choose two.)

SVI

LAN*

DHCP

Telnet

WAN*

 

14. Which two pieces of information are in the RAM of a Cisco router during normal operation? (Choose two.)

Cisco IOS*

backup IOS file

IP routing table*

basic diagnostic software

startup configuration file

 

15. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

The IOS image is corrupt.

Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.*

The POST process has detected hardware failure.

 

16. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device

to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup*

to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using

to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS

 

17. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)

interface fastethernet 0/0

line vty 0 4

line console 0*

enable secret cisco

login*

password cisco*

 

18. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing.

The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling.*

Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.

The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.

 

19. Open the PT Activity. The enable password on all devices is cisco.
Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

For what reason is the failure occurring?

PC1 has an incorrect default gateway configured.

SW1 does not have a default gateway configured.*

The IP address of SW1 is configured in a wrong subnet.

PC2 has an incorrect default gateway configured.

20. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

Place de options in the following order.

R1(config)# -> service password-encrytion
R1> -> enable
– not scored –
R1# -> copy running-config startup-config
R1(config-line)# -> login
R1(config-if)# -> ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 5 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

The frame is dropped.*

The frame is returned to the originating network device.

The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.

The frame is sent to the default gateway.

 

2. What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)

56 bytes

64 bytes*

128 bytes

1024 bytes

1518 bytes*

 

3. What statement describes Ethernet?

It defines the most common LAN type in the world.*

It is the required Layer 1 and 2 standard for Internet communication.

It defines a standard model used to describe how networking works.

It connects multiple sites such as routers located in different countries.

 

4. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)

Logical link control is implemented in software.*

Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.

The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.

The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite.*

The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.

 

5. What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

They must be globally unique.*

They are only routable within the private network.

They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.

They have a 32-bit binary value.

 

6. Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

MAC addresses are implemented by software.

A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.

The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.*

The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

 

7. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

0.0.0.0

255.255.255.255

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*

127.0.0.1

01-00-5E-00-AA-23

 

8. What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?

the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets

the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames

the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets

the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames*

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

The switch will discard the frame.

The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.

The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.*

The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

 

10. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?

cut-through

fast-forward

fragment-free

store-and-forward*

 

11. What is auto-MDIX?

a type of Cisco switch

an Ethernet connector type

a type of port on a Cisco switch

a feature that detects Ethernet cable type*

 

12. True or False?

When a device is sending data to another device on a remote network, the Ethernet frame is sent to the MAC address of the default gateway.

true*

false

 

13. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?

Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address*

Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address

Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address

Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

 

14. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.*

RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.

RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.

SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.

SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D?

 

Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D.

Host D sends an ARP request to host A.

Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch sends the packet only to the host D, which in turn responds.

Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.*

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

 

only host D

only router R1

only hosts A, B, and C

only hosts A, B, C, and D

only hosts B and C

only hosts B, C, and router R1*

 

17. Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?

They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network.

They are received and processed by every device on the local network.*

They are dropped by all switches on the local network.

They are received and processed only by the target device.

 

18. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)

Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.

On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.*

Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.*

Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.

Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.

 

19. Fill in the blank.
A collision fragment, also known as a RUNT frame, is a frame of fewer than 64 bytes in length.

 

20. Fill in the blank.

On a Cisco switch, port-based memory buffering is used to buffer frames in queues linked to specific incoming and outgoing ports.

 

21. Fill in the blank.
ARP spoofing is a technique that is used to send fake ARP messages to other hosts in the LAN. The aim is to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC addresses.

22. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

Sort elements
cut-through (A) -> low latency (A)
cut-through (B) -> may forward runt frames (B)
cut-through (C) -> begins forwarding when the destination address is received (C)
store-and-forward (D) -> always stores the entire frame (D)
store-and-forward (E) -> checks the CRC before forwarding (E)
store-and-forward (F) -> checks the frame length before forwarding (F)

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 4 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.)

to reduce the number of collisions on the media

to distinguish data bits from control bits*

to provide better media error correction

to identify where the frame starts and ends*

to increase the media throughput

 

2. What is indicated by the term throughput?

the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP

the capacity of a particular medium to carry data

the measure of the usable data transferred across the media

the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time*

the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

 

3. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

EMI*

crosstalk

RFI*

signal attenuation

extended length of cabling

 

4. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting

the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires*

the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths

the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

 

5. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

twisting the wires together into pairs*

wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs

encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

terminating the cable with special grounded connectors

 

6. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?

 

1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through

1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover*

1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover

1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

The wrong type of connector is being used.

The untwisted length of each wire is too long.*

The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

 

8. Which type of connector does a network interface card use?

DIN

PS-2

RJ-11

RJ-45*

 

9. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?

It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.

It is able to be installed around sharp bends.

It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.

It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.*

 

10. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.

They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.

They increase the speed at which the data can travel.

They allow for full-duplex connectivity.*

 

11. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

mobility options

security*

interference*

coverage area*

extensive cabling

packet collision

 

12. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

application

transport

data link*

physical

 

13. What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

It encrypts data packets.

It determines the path to forward packets.

It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.*

It provides media access control and performs error detection.*

It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.

 

14. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.

Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.

Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.

Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.*

 

15. Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the same time?

full duplex*

half duplex

multiplex

simplex

 

16. Which statement describes an extended star topology?

End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central intermediate devices.*

End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device.

Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.

All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA

None of the networks require media access control.

Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.*

Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.

Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

 

18. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

logical address

physical address

data

error detection*

 

19. As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame?

The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.*

The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached.

The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address.

The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame.

 

20. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?

to verify the integrity of the received frame*

to verify the physical address in the frame

to verify the logical address in the frame

to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame

 

21. Fill in the blank.

The term bandwidth indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).

 

22. Fill in the blank.

What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame? LLC

 

23. Fill in the blank.

A physical topology that is a variation or combination of a point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topology is commonly known as a hybrid topology.

24. Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber. (Not all options are used.)

Place de options in the following order.

Multimode Fiber

LED as light source
several paths of light into the fiber
generally used with LANs

Single-mode Fiber

only one ray of light into the fiber
generally used for campus backbone
laser as light source

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 3 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?

encapsulation

flow control*

access method

response timeout

 

2. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

broadcast*

multicast

unicast

allcast

 

3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

access control

decoding

encapsulation*

flow control

 

4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet*

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

 

5. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.

They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.*

They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.

They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.

 

6. Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?

The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions.*

The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer.

The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions.

The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the TCP/IP internet layer.

 

7. What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.

Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.*

Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.

Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.

 

8. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

ARP

DHCP*

DNS*

FTP*

NAT

PPP

 

9. What are proprietary protocols?

protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware

protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor

protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation*

a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

 

10. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor.

A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data.*

Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.

Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

only application and Internet layers

only Internet and network access layers

only application, Internet, and network access layers

application, transport, Internet, and network access layers*

only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

 

12. Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

application*

presentation*

session*

transport

data link

physical

network

 

13. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer*

transport layer

 

14. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

file

frame*

packet

segment

 

15. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

bits

frame

packet

segment*

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

A frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchA.

A packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.

A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.*

A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB.*

A frame with the destination MAC address of ServerB.

 

17. Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address*

source Ethernet address

 

18. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

 

19. Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer*

the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer

the physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer

the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router

 

20. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)

message encoding  ->  the process of converting information from one format into another acceptable for transmission

message encapsulation  -> the process of placing one message format inside another message format

message sizing  ->  the process of breaking up a long message into individual pieces before being sent over the network

 

21. Match the protocol function to the description while taking into consideration that a network client is visiting a web site. (Not all options are used.)

governing the way a web server and a web client interact -> application protocol
talking the segments from the transport protocol, encapsulating them into packets, and assigning them with appropriate addresses -> internet protocol
preparing packets to be transmitted over the network media -> network access protocol
– not scored –
managing the individual conversation between web servers and web clients -> transport protocol

 

22. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)

ISOC -> The organization promotes the open development, evolution, and use of the internet throughout the world
ISO -> This organization is the largest developer of international standars in the world for a wide variety of products and services. It is know for its Open System Interconection (OSI) reference model.
IANA -> This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What is the function of the kernel of an operating software?

It provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task.

The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer.

It is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device.

The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements.*

2. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

Telnet

Console

AUX

SSH*

 

3. Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure environment?

Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network.

Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.*

Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network.

Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.

 

4. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

end

exit*

Ctrl-Z

Ctrl-C

 

5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file contains an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

global configuration mode

setup mode

privileged EXEC mode

user EXEC mode*

 

6. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted

displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode*

allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key

determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command*

selecting the best command to accomplish a task

 

7. Which information does the show startup-config command display?

the IOS image copied into RAM

the bootstrap program in the ROM

the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM*

 

8. Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device?

a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set

a hostname must be configured before any other parameters

to identify the device during remote access (SSH or telnet)*

to allow local access to the device through the console port

 

9. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

Branch2!

RM-3-Switch-2A4*

Floor(15)

HO Floor 17

SwBranch799*

 

10. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.*

It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the MOTD on switch SW1. What is the purpose of this command?

 

to display a message when a user accesses the switch*

to configure switch SW1 so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet into SW1

to force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication

to configure switch SW1 so that the message will display when a user enters the enable command

 

12. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?

Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.*

Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.

Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.

Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.

 

13. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.*

It is stored in NVRAM.

It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

 

14. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

RAM provides nonvolatile storage.

The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.*

The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.*

RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.

RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

 

15. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

the AUX interface

the console port interface

the switch virtual interface*

the first Ethernet port interface

 

16. Which interface is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

FastEthernet 0/1

GigabitEthernet 0/1

VLAN 1*

VLAN 99

 

17. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

to enable the switch to be managed remotely*

to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

 

18. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

ping

ipconfig*

show interfaces

show ip interface brief

 

19. A technician is adding a new PC to a LAN. After unpacking the components and making all the connections, the technician starts the PC. After the OS loads, the technician opens a browser, and verifies that the PC can reach the Internet. Why was the PC able to connect to the network with no additional configuration?

The PC does not require any additional information to function on the network.

The PC came preconfigured with IP addressing information from the factory.

The PC was preconfigured to use DHCP.*

The PC used DNS to automatically receive IP addressing information from a server.

The PC virtual interface is compatible with any network.

 

20. What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?

if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire

if there is connectivity with the destination device*

the path that traffic will take to reach the destination

what type of device is at the destination

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is testing connectivity in a new network. Based on the test results shown in the exhibit, which device does the technician have connectivity with and which device does the technician not have connectivity with? (Choose two.)

connectivity: switch 2*

connectivity: PC-D

connectivity: PC-B

no connectivity: switch 1

no connectivity: switch 2

no connectivity: PC-C*

 

22. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

 

Two physical interfaces have been configured.

The switch can be remotely managed.*

One device is attached to a physical interface.*

Passwords have been configured on the switch.

Two devices are attached to the switch.

The default SVI has been configured.*

 

23. An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)

24. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Answers 2018 (100%)

1. A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network. What are three characteristics of a peer-to-peer network? (Choose three.)

better security

easy to create*

better device performance when acting as both client and server

lacks centralized administration*

less cost to implement*

scalable

 

2. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a router*

a firewall

a web server

a DSL modem

 

3. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)

the types of data that need to be prioritized

the cost of the end devices utilized in the network

the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal*

the number of intermediary devices installed in the network

the environment where the selected medium is to be installed*

 

4. Which two statements describe intermediary devices? (Choose two.)

Intermediary devices generate data content.

Intermediary devices alter data content.

Intermediary devices direct the path of the data.*

Intermediary devices connect individual hosts to the network.*

Intermediary devices initiate the encapsulation process.

 

5. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

They originate the data that flows through the network.*

They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.

They filter the flow of data to enhance security.

They are the interface between humans and the communication network.*

They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

 

6. Which area of the network would a college IT staff most likely have to redesign as a direct result of many students bringing their own tablets and smartphones to school to access school resources?

extranet

intranet

wired LAN

wireless LAN*

wireless WAN

 

7. What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?

an intranet

the Internet*

an extranet

a local area network

 

8. An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?

an intranet*

the Internet

an extranet

a local area network

 

9. Which two connection options provide an always-on, high-bandwidth Internet connection to computers in a home office? (Choose two.)

cellular

DSL*

satellite

cable*

dial-up telephone

 

10. Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.)

DSL

cellular*

satellite*

dialup

dedicated leased line

 

11. Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity?

convergence

congestion*

optimization

synchronization

 

12. What type of network traffic requires QoS?

email

on-line purchasing

video conferencing*

wiki

 

13. Which expression accurately defines the term bandwidth?

a method of limiting the impact of a hardware or software failure on the network

a measure of the data carrying capacity of the media*

a state where the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity

a set of techniques to manage the utilization of network resources

 

14. A network administrator is implementing a policy that requires strong, complex passwords. Which data protection goal does this policy support?

data integrity

data quality

data confidentiality*

data redundancy

 

15. Which statement describes a characteristic of cloud computing?

A business can connect directly to the Internet without the use of an ISP.

Applications can be accessed over the Internet by individual users or businesses using any device, anywhere in the world.*

Devices can connect to the Internet through existing electrical wiring.

Investment in new infrastructure is required in order to access the cloud.

 

16. What is the Internet?

It is a network based on Ethernet technology.

It provides network access for mobile devices.

It provides connections through interconnected global networks.*

It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.

 

17. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.*

Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

 

18. What security violation would cause the most amount of damage to the life of a home user?

denial of service to your email server

replication of worms and viruses in your computer

capturing of personal data that leads to identity theft*

spyware that leads to spam emails

 

19. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)

implementing a firewall*

installing a wireless network

installing antivirus software*

implementing an intrusion detection system

adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

 

20. Fill in the blank.

A converged network is capable of delivering voice, video, text, and graphics over the same communication channels.

 

21. Fill in the blank.

The acronym byod refers to the policy that allows employees to use their personal devices in the business office to access the network and other resources.

 

22. Match the description to the form of network communication. (Not all options are used.)

Web pages that groups of people can edit and view together -> wiki
Interactive websites where people created and share user-generated content with friends and family -> Social media
real-time communication of between two or more people -> instant messaging
an audio-based medium that allows people to deliver their recordings to a wide audience -> podcast

 

23. Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet connectivity type. (Not all options are used.)

satellite -> Not suited for heavily wooded areas
dialup telephone -> typically has very low bandwidth
DSL -> splits the access line into three signals
cable -> uses coaxial cable as a medium

 

24. Match the definition to the security goal. (Not all options are used.)

maintaining integrity -> the assurance that the information has not been altered during transmission
ensuring confidentiality -> only the intended recipients can access and read the data
ensuring availability -> the assurance of timely and reliable access to data

CCNA1 v6.0 Pretest Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

11110010

11011011

11110110

11100111*

11100101

11101110

 

2. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

85

90

BA*

A1

B3

1C

 

3. The failure rate in a certain brand of network interface card has been determined to be 15%. How many cards could be expected to fail in a company that has 80 of the cards installed?

8

10

12*

15

 

4. A local real estate company can have its 25 computer systems upgraded for $1000. If the company chooses only to upgrade 10 systems, how much will the upgrade cost if the same rate is used?

$100

$200

$400*

$500

$600

 

5. Which two devices provide permanent data storage? (Choose two.)

Blu-Ray disc*

hard drive*

keyboard

monitor

RAM

 

6. If a technician uses an average of 2 cans of compressed air per week for cleaning, how many cans should be ordered for 8 technicians over the next 10 weeks?

16

20

80

160*

200

 

7. What is a function of the BIOS?

enables a computer to connect to a network

provides temporary data storage for the CPU

performs a power-on self test of internal components*

provides graphic capabilities for games and applications

 

8. Which is a characteristic of the Internet?

It is not centrally governed.*

It uses only physical addresses.

It uses private IP addressing.

It is localized to specific geographic locations.

 

9. Which command can be used to test connectivity between two computers that are attached to a network?

ipconfig

ping*

winipcfg

ifconfig

nbtstst -s

 

10. A person-hour is the amount of work that the average worker can do in one hour. It is anticipated that a company-wide system upgrade will take approximately 60 person-hours to complete. How long will it take five technicians to perform the refresh?

5 hours

8 hours

10 hours

12 hours*

 

11. Considering the average capacity of storage device media, drag the storage media on the left to the capacity list on the right.

 

 

12. Refer to the exhibit. Match the port to the associated letter shown in the exhibit. (Not all options are used.)

 

13. Match the icon to its likely associated use. (Not all options are used.)

14. Match the form of network communication with its description. (Not all options are used.)

 

15. Match the application with the correct compressed file format. (Not all options are used.)

 

16. A user is having problems accessing the Internet. The command ping www.cisco.com fails. However, pinging the IP address of cisco.com with the command ping 198.133.219.25 is successful. What is the problem?

The web server is down.

The default gateway is incorrect.

There is a problem with DNS.*

The address of the ARP cache is incorrect.

 

17. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?

2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13

2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13

2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13

2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13*

 

18. What is the purpose of the routing process?

to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network

to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*

to convert a URL name into an IP address

to provide secure Internet file transfer

to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

 

19. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

switch

hub

router*

host

 

20. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

 

21. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

LAN

MAN

WAN*

WLAN

 

22. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

to determine the active TCP connections on a PC

to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server

to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*

to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

 

23. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

 

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*

It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

 

24. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

 

25. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

the TCP/IP stack on a network host*

connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices

connectivity between a PC and the default gateway

connectivity between two PCs on the same network

physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

 

26. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

 

27. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

frame

packet

protocol data unit*

segment

 

28. How does a networked server manage requests from multiple clients for different services?

The server sends all requests through a default gateway.

Each request is assigned source and destination port numbers.*

The server uses IP addresses to identify different services.

Each request is tracked through the physical address of the client.

 

29. Which protocol translates a website name such as www.cisco.com into a network address?

HTTP

FTP

DHCP

DNS*

 

30. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.*

The command syntax is wrong.

The subnet mask information is incorrect.

The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.

 

31. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?

TCP*

IP

HTTP

Ethernet

 

32. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

presentation layer

network layer

physical layer*

data link layer

 

33. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

 

34. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

FTP

HTTP

DHCP*

ICMP

SNMP

 

35. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.*

It will forward the frame to the next host.

It will remove the frame from the media.

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

 

36. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

 

37. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8*

64.100.0.0/14

127.16.0.0/12

172.16.0.0/12*

192.31.7.0/24

192.168.0.0/16*

 

38. What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?

ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network.

ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network.

ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network.

ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network.*

 

39. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices

to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally

to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

 

40. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2018