CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 8 Exam Answers

1. Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence?

adjacency database

link-state database*

routing table

SPF tree

 

2. Which three statements describe features of the OSPF topology table? (Choose three.

It is a link-state database that represents the network topology.*

Its contents are the result of running the SPF algorithm.

When converged, all routers in an area have identical topology tables.*

The topology table contains feasible successor routes.

The table can be viewed via the show ip ospf database command.*

After convergence, the table only contains the lowest cost route entries for all known networks.

 

3. What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

to send specifically requested link-state records

to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them*

to ensure database synchronization between routers

to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

 

4. Which OPSF packet contains the different types of link-state advertisements?

hello

DBD

LSR

LSU*

LSAck

 

5. A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?

OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.

SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.

A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.

OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.*

 

6. What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)

to facilitate the establishment of network convergence

to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain*

to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full

to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router*

to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path

to remote networks

 

7. Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?

the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router

the IP address of the highest active interface on the router

the router-id rid command*

the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface

 

8. Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?

0.0.0.32

0.0.0.31*

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.223

 

9. Which command should be used to check the OSPF process ID, the router ID, networks the router is advertising, the neighbors the router is receiving updates from, and the default administrative distance?

show ip protocols*

show ip ospf neighbor

show ip ospf

show ip ospf interface

 

10. Which OSPFv3 function works differently from OSPFv2?

metric calculation

hello mechanism

OSPF packet types

authentication*

election process

 

11. Which three statements describe the similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three.)

They both are link-state protocols.*

They both use the global address as the source address when sending OSPF messages.

They both share the concept of multiple areas.*

They both support IPsec for authentication.

They both use the same DR/BDR election process.*

They both have unicast routing enabled by default.

 

12. What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?

the highest MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-48 process

the FE80::/10 prefix and the EUI-48 process

the MAC address of the serial interface, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process

an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process*

 

13. A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?

The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64.

The router will be assigned a router ID of 64.

The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s.

The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.*

 

14. When a network engineer is configuring OSPFv3 on a router, which command would the engineer issue immediately before configuring the router ID?

ipv6 ospf 10 area 0

ipv6 router ospf 10*

interface serial 0/0/1

clear ipv6 ospf process

 

15. Single area OSPFv3 has been enabled on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 20 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router?

ipv6 ospf 0 area 0

ipv6 ospf 20 area 20

ipv6 ospf 0 area 20

ipv6 ospf 20 area 0*

 

16. Which command will verify that a router that is running OSPFv3 has formed an adjacency with other routers in its OSPF area?

show running-configuration

show ipv6 ospf neighbor*

show ipv6 route ospf

show ipv6 interface brief

 

17. Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?

show ip route ospf

show ip route

show ipv6 route

show ipv6 route ospf*

 

18. Fill in the blank.

The election of a DR and a BDR takes place on _multiaccess_ networks, such as Ethernet networks.

 

19. Fill in the blank.

OSPF uses __cost__  as a metric.

 

20. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

To quickly verify OSPFv3 configuration information including the OSPF process ID, the router ID, and the interfaces enabled for OSPFv3, you need to issue the command _show ipv6 protocols _ .

 

21. Match the information to the command that is used to obtain the information. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

Neighbor ID of 3.3.3.3 -> show ip ospf neighbor
– not scored –
Routing Process “ospf 10” with ID 1.1.1.1 -> show ip ospf
Routing Protocol is “ospf 10”  -> show ip protocols
BW 1544 Kbit/sec -> show interface serial 0/0/0

 

22. By order of precedence, match the selection of router ID for an OSPF-enabled router to the possible router ID options. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

Third precedence -> Loopback interface address 10.1.1.1
Fourth precedence -> Serial interface address 192.168.10.1
– not scored –
First precedence -> Configured router ID 1.1.1.1
Second precedence -> loopback interface IP address 172.16.1.1

 

23. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. -> adjacency database
This is the algorithm used by OSPF.  -> Shortest Path First
All the routers are in the backbone area.  -> Single-area OSPF
– not scored –
This is where you can find the topology table.  -> link-state database
– not scored –

 

24.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task.

What message is displayed on www.ciscoville.com?

Finished!

Completion!*

Success!

Converged!

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 7 Exam Answers

1. What is the purpose of the passive-interface command?

allows a routing protocol to forward updates out an interface that is missing its IP address

allows a router to send routing updates on an interface but not receive updates via that innterface

allows an interface to remain up without receiving keepalives

allows interfaces to share IP addresses

allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface*

 

2. What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.)

discover hosts

update and maintain routing tables*

propagate host default gateways

network discovery*

assign IP addressing

 

3. Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2?

S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.0.2

S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9*

S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1

S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0

 

4. Which two statements describe the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)

automatically summarizes networks at the classful boundaries

has an administrative distance of 100

calculates its metric using bandwidth*

uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to build the SPF tree*

used primarily as an EGP

 

5. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

sends subnet mask information in routing updates*

sends complete routing table update to all neighbors

is supported by RIP version 1

allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology*

reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

 

6. What two actions result from entering the network 192.168.1.0 command in RIP configuration mode on a router? (Choose two.)

The network address 192.168.1.0 is advertised to the neighbor routers.*

Routing updates are sent through all the interfaces belonging to 192.168.1.0.*

The routing table is created in the RAM of the router.

The RIP process is stopped and all existing RIP configurations are erased.

The neighboring routers are sent a request for routing updates.

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output from the show ip route command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol? (Choose two.

RIP version 2 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.*

The metric to the network 172.16.0.0 is 120.

RIP version 1 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.

The command no auto-summary has been used on the RIP neighbor router.*

RIP will advertise two networks to its neighbor.

 

8. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed as an exterior gateway protocol to interconnect different Internet providers?

BGP*

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP

 

9. In the context of routing protocols, what is a definition for time to convergence?

the amount of time a network administrator needs to configure a routing protocol in a small- to medium-sized network

the capability to transport data, video, and voice over the same media

a measure of protocol configuration complexity

the amount of time for the routing tables to achieve a consistent state after a topology change*

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used in the network. Which path will be chosen by OSPF to send data packets from Net A to Net B?

R1, R2, R5, R7

R1, R3, R5, R7*

R1, R3, R6, R7

R1, R4, R6, R7

R1, R3, R5, R6, R7

 

11. A destination route in the routing table is indicated witha code D. Which kind of route entry is this?

a static route

a route used as the default gateway

a network directly connected to a router interface

a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol*

 

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?

Serial0/0/0

Serial0/0/1*

GigabitEthernet0/0

GigabitEthernet0/1

 

13. Which two events will trigger the sending of a link-state packet by a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

the router update timer expiring

a link to a neighbor router has become congested

a change in the topology*

the initial startup of the routing protocol process*

the requirement to periodically flood link-state packets to all neighbors

 

14. Which two requirements are necessary before a router configured with a link-state routing protocol can build and send its link-state packets? (Choose two.)

The router has determined the costs associated with its active links.*

The router has built its link-state database.

The routing table has been refreshed.

The router has established its adjacencies.*

The router has constructed an SPF tree.

 

15. Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as an ultimate route in a router’s routing table? (Choose two.)

contain subnets

be a default route

contain an exit interface*

be a classful network entry

contain a next-hop IP address*

 

16. What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries?

IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not.

By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes.*

The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4 route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix.

IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4.

 

17. Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?

a level 1 child route

a level 1 parent route

a level 1 ultimate route*

a level 2 supernet route

 

18. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.

When configuring RIPng, the default-information originate command instructs the router to propagate a static default route.

 

19. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate the answer.

The command version 2 is used in RIP router configuration mode to enable the sending of subnet masks with the routing updates.

 

20. Match the routing protocol to the corresponding category. (Not all options are used.)

Distance vector

RIOv2

EIGRP

Link state

OSPF

IS-IS

 

21. Match the characteristic to the corresponding type of routing. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
[+] typically used on stub networks
[+] less routing overhead
[#] new networks are added automatically to the routing table
[#] best choice for large networks

22. Match the features of link-state routing protocols to their advantages and disadvantages. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
[+] event-driven updates
[+] building a topological map
[+] fast convergence
[#] bandwidth consumption
[#] memory usage
[#] CPU processing time

CCNA 2 v5 RSE Chapter 6 Skill Assessment – Packet Tracer 2014

CCNA 2 v5 RSE Chapter 6 Skill Assessment – Packet Tracer 2014

Routing and Switching Essentials

RSE Chapter 6 SIC Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer

A few things to keep in mind while completing this activity:

1. Do not use the browser Back button or close or reload any exam windows during the exam.

2. Do not close Packet Tracer when you are done. It will close automatically.

3. Click the Submit Assessment button in the browser window to submit your work. Objectives

  • Design an IP addressing scheme to provide connectivity to end users in a small to medium-sized business network
  • Configure static routes to enable connectivity in a small to medium-sized business network.
  • Configure summary and floating static routes.

All IOS device configurations should be completed from a direct terminal connection to the device console. Addressing Table

Device Interface IPv4 Address Subnet Mask Default Gateway
IPv6 Address/Prefix
R1 S0/0/0 128.107.0.254 255.255.255.252 N/A
S0/0/1 2001:DB8:2:1::0/127 N/A
S0/1/0 2001:DB8:1:1::6/127 N/A
S0/1/1 10.10.20.1 255.255.255.252 N/A
R2 G0/0 N/A
G0/1 N/A
S0/0/0 10.10.20.2 255.255.255.252 N/A
R3 G0/0 2001:DB8:1:A::1/64 N/A
G0/1 2001:DB8:1:B::1/64 N/A
S0/0/0 2001:DB8:1:1::7/127 N/A
PC1 NIC
PC2 NIC
PC3 NIC 2001:DB8:1:A::F/64 2001:DB8:1:A::1
PC4 NIC 2001:DB8:1:B::F/64 2001:DB8:1:B::1

Scenario

The network administrator has asked you to implement IPv4 and IPv6 static and default routing in the test environment shown in the topology. Configure each static and default route as directly attached.

Requirements

1. Use the address space 10.10.16.0/24 to design an addressing scheme.

  • Split this address space into two equal-sized networks by subnetting it again.

Subnet 1:  10.10.16.0/25

Subnet 2: 10.10.16.128/25

  • Assign the first of these new subnets to PC1 LAN.

subnet:  10.10.16.0      

mask: 255.255.255.128

  • Assign the second of these new subnets subnet to PC2 LAN.

subnet:  10.10.16.128  

mask:  255.255.255.128

  • For each subnet, assign the first usable IP address to R2 and the last usable IP address to the PCs.

interface G0/0 ip address 10.10.16.1 255.255.255.128 no shutdown

PC1: 10.10.16.126 255.255.255.128

Gateway: 10.10.16.1 255.255.255.128

interface G0/1

ip address 10.10.16.129 255.255.255.128

no shutdown

PC2: 10.10.16.254  255.255.255.128

Gateway: 10.10.16.129  255.255.255.128

2. Configure IPv4 summary and default routes.

  • Configure an IPv4 default route on R2 using the next hop address.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0  10.10.20.1

  • Configure an IPv4 default route on R1 using Serial 0/0/0 as the exit interface.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0  s0/0/0

  • Configure an IPv4 summary route on R1 for the internal LANs. Use the exit interface.

ip route 10.10.16.0 255.255.255.0 s0/1/1

3. Configure IPv6 summary and default routes.

  • Configure an IPv6 default route on R3 using the exit interface.

ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0

  • Configure an IPv6 default route on R1 using Serial 0/0/1 as the exit interface.

ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/1

  • Configure an IPv6 summary route on R1 for the internal LANs. Use the exit interface.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:a::/63 s0/1/0

4. Configure an IPv4 floating static route on R1 to the 64.100.100.0/24 network using the Serial 0/0/1 as the exit interface. Make the floating static route less trustworthy than the default route by one unit of AD.

ip route 64.100.100.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/1  2

If your configuration has been completed correctly, all hosts should be able to contact the server that is attached to the Internet.

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 6 Exam Answers

1. What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.*

Static routing scales well with expanding networks.

Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.

Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.*

Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which is the best way for PC A and PC B to successfully communicate with sites on the Internet?

Configure a static route from R1 to ISP and a dynamic route from ISP to R1.

Configure a default route from R1 to ISP and a static route from ISP to R1.*

Configure a dynamic route from R1 to ISP and a static route from ISP to R1.

Configure a routing protocol between R1 and ISP and advertise all the routes.

3. What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?

dynamic route

default route*

destination route

generic route

4. Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?

to be used as a backup route*

to load-balance the traffic

to act as a gateway of last resort

to be the priority route in the routing table

5. Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?

recursive static route

directly connected static route*

fully specified static route

default static route

6. Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2*

A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0

7. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?

C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2*

8. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2*

A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0

A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2*

9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.5

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.6

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1*

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

10. Refer to the exhibit. What command would be used to configure a static route on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 remote network?

ipv6 route ::/0 serial0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::1

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::2*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1::/65 2001:db8:1:3::1

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?

R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/0

R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/0 fe80::2

R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/1 fe80::2*

R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/1 fe80::2

12. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)

It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.

The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.*

Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.

Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.

All subnets in a network are the same size.*

Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

13. A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements:

IP phones – 50
PCs – 70
IP cameras – 10
wireless access points – 10
network printers – 10
network scanners – 2

Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?

172.16.0.0/25

172.16.0.0/24*

172.16.0.0/23

172.16.0.0/22

14. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?

utilize one subnet mask throughout a hierarchical network

utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system

utilize one dynamic routing protocol throughout the entire network

utilize multiple different subnet masks in the same IP address space*

utilize one public IP address to translate multiple private addresses

15. What would be the best summary route for the following networks?

10.50.168.0/23
10.50.170.0/23
10.50.172.0/23
10.50.174.0/24
10.50.160.0/22

10.50.164.0/23

10.50.168.0/16

10.50.168.0/21*

10.50.168.0/22

10.50.168.0/23

16. What is a valid summary route for IPv6 networks 2001:0DB8:ACAD:4::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:5::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:6::/64, and 2001:0DB8:ACAD:7::/64?

2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/63

2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/64

2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/62*

2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/63

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10*

18. Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.)

show version

ping*

tracert

show ip route*

show ip interface brief*

show arp

19. Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2 LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?

R2 needs a static route to the R1 LANs.

R1 and R2 must use a dynamic routing protocol.

R1 needs a default route to R2.

R1 needs a static route to the R2 LAN.*

R2 needs a static route to the Internet.

20. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

The route is removed from the table.*

The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

21. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the name of the web server that is displayed in the webpage?

Main-Webserver

WWW-Server

Webserver10*

MNSRV

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What IPv6 static route can be configured on router R1 to make a fully converged network?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:10:12::1

ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32:77::1

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 5 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit. The switch does the routing for the hosts that connect to VLAN 5. If the PC accesses a web server from the Internet, at what point will a VLAN number be added to the frame?

point A

point B

point C

point D

point E

No VLAN number is added to the frame in this design.*

2. Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?

router on a stick*

routing via a multilayer switch

routing for the management VLAN

legacy inter-VLAN routing

3. What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

does not support VLAN-tagged packets

requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing

does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs*

requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links

4. How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?

Traffic is routed via physical interfaces.

Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.*

Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces.

Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.

5. A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?

A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.*

Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.

A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch.

A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.

6. Which statement describes a disadvantage of using router subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing?

It is more expensive than using individual router interfaces.

Routed traffic must contend for bandwidth on a single router interface.*

Trunking cannot be used to connect the router to the switch.

All untagged traffic is dropped.

7. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure router-on-a-stick for the networks that are shown. How many subinterfaces will have to be created on the router if each VLAN that is shown is to be routed and each VLAN has its own subinterface?

1

2

3

4*

5

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router CiscoVille with the above commands to provide inter-VLAN routing. What command will be required on a switch that is connected to the Gi0/0 interface on router CiscoVille to allow inter-VLAN routing?

switchport mode access

no switchport

switchport mode trunk*

switchport mode dynamic desirable

9. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will drop the packet.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.*

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between the VLANs is not occurring. What could be the issue?

The wrong port on the router has been used.

The Gi1/1 switch port is not in trunking mode.*

A duplex issue exists between the switch and the router.

Default gateways have not been configured for each VLAN.

11. Inter-VLAN communication is not occurring in a particular building of a school. Which two commands could the network administrator use to verify that inter-VLAN communication was working properly between a router and a Layer 2 switch when the router-on-a-stick design method is implemented? (Choose two.)

From the router, issue the show ip route command.*

From the router, issue the show interfaces trunk command.

From the router, issue the show interfaces interface command.

From the switch, issue the show vlans command.

From the switch, issue the show interfaces trunk command.*

From the switch, issue the show interfaces interface command.

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PCs on different VLANs cannot communicate. Based on the output, what are two configuration errors on switch interface Gi1/1? (Choose two.)

Gi1/1 is in the default VLAN.*

Voice VLAN is not assigned to Gi1/1.

Gi1/1 is configured as trunk mode.*

Negotiation of trunking is turned on on Gi1/1.

The trunking encapsulation protocol is configured wrong.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?

Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port.

The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly.

There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0.

The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.

The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN.*

14. Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.

There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.

RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.*

The no shutdown command should have been issued on

Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.

15. Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?

The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45.

The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.

The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.

There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing. The switch is configured correctly and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot communicate with each other. Based on the router configuration, what is causing the problem?

Interface Fa0/0 is missing IP address configuration information.

IP addresses on the subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs.*

Each subinterface of Fa0/0 needs separate no shutdown commands.

Routers do not support 802.1Q encapsulation on subinterfaces.

17. What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?

The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.*

All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers.

All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN.

Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which command can the administrator issue to change the VLAN10 status to up?

Switch1(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown?

Switch1(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0?

Switch1(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown?

Switch1(config)# vlan 10
Switch1(config-vlan)# exit*

19. While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?

to create a routed port for a single network*

to provide a static trunk link

to create a switched virtual interface

to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic

20. What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?

Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing.

Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.*

Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch.

Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.

21. Fill in the blank with an acronym.

While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a/an svi is used as a virtual-routed VLAN interface.

22. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

A network engineer is troubleshooting the configuration of new VLANs on a network. ?Which command is used to display the list of VLANs that exists on the switch?

show vlan

23. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

Which command is missing on the Layer 3 switch to restore the full connectivity between PC1 and the web server?

ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

 

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 4 Exam Answers

1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It connects multiple IP networks.*

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It determines the best path to send packets.*

It manages the VLAN database.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

2. In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

hostname

IP address*

subnet mask*

default gateway*

DNS server address

DHCP server address

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?

IPv6 enable

clockrate 128000

end

no shutdown*

4. What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?

Routers can be configured with IP addresses. Switches cannot.

Switches move packets from one physical interface to another. Routers do not.

Switches use tables of information to determine how to process data traffic. Routers do not.

Routers support a variety of interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces.*

5. Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated interface identifier?

ipv6 enable

ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length

ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64*

ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local

6. What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?

loopback

unique local

link-local*

static

global unicast

7. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

IP addresses*

MAC addresses

Layer 1 statuses*

next-hop addresses

interface descriptions

speed and duplex settings

8. When a computer is pinging another computer for the first time, what type of message does it place on the network to determine the MAC address of the other device?

an ICMP ping

an ARP request*

an RFI (Request for Information) message

a multicast to any Layer 3 devices that are connected to the local network

9. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?

the MAC address of S1

the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1*

the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2

the MAC address of S2

the MAC address of File_server1

10. A packet moves from a host on one network to a device on a remote network within the same company. If NAT is not performed on the packet, which two items remain unchanged during the transfer of the packet from source to destination? (Choose two.)

destination IP address*

source ARP table

source IP address*

source MAC address

destination MAC address

Layer 2 header

11. What address changes as a packet travels across multiple Layer 3 Ethernet hops to its final destination?

source IP

destination IP

source Layer 2 address*

destination port

12. Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)

destination IP address*

destination MAC address

source MAC address

subnet mask*

network number

13. Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?

Drop the packet.

Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.*

Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.

14. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.*

A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.

The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.

Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.*

The metric is always determined based on hop count.

The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. Which two types of routes are displayed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

static route

local host route*

directly connected network*

route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol

route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)

static route*

local host route

directly connected network*

route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol

route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

17. A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?

The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.*

The configuration needs to be saved first.

No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.

The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.

18. A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table

to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table*

19. A network administrator is implementing dynamic routing protocols for a company. Which command can the administrator issue on a router to display the supported routing protocols?

Router(config)# router ?*

Router(config)# service ?

Router(config)# ip route ?

Router(config)# ip forward-protocol ?

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip route command on R2. What two types of routes are installed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

a configured default route

directly connected networks*

routes that are learned through the OSPF routing protocol

routes that are learned through the EIGRP routing protocol*

a configured static route to the network 209.165.200.224

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted field in the line that is displayed from the show ip route command?

It indicates that this is a default route.

It indicates that this route was learned via EIGRP.*

It indicates that this is a directly connected route.

It indicates that this route has been deleted from the routing table.

22. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

23. Fill in the blank.

When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the Routing table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description with the routing table entries. (Not all options are used.)

172.16.2.2 -> next hop
10.3.0.0 -> destination network
21024000 -> metric
1 -> administrative distance
00:22:15 -> route timestamp
D -> route  source protocol

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 3 Exam Answers

1. Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation? (Choose two.)

The size of the collision domain is reduced.

The number of required switches in a network decreases.

VLANs logically group hosts, regardless of physical location.*

The network load increases significantly because of added trunking information.

Devices in one VLAN do not hear the broadcasts from devices in another VLAN.*

2. Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).

A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.*

A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.

After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN.*

An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.*

Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.

VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.

3. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking? (Choose two.)

between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs*

between a switch and a client PC

between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC*

between a switch and a network printer

between two switches that share a common VLAN

4. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?

A VLAN tag is added when the frame leaves PC-A.

A VLAN tag is added when the frame is accepted by the switch.

A VLAN tag is added when the frame is forwarded out the port to PC-B.

No VLAN tag is added to the frame.*

5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the Fa0/18 port of a switch that does not have this VLAN in the VLAN database?

The command will have no effect on the switch.

VLAN 20 will be created automatically.*

An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not created.

Port Fa0/18 will be shut down.

6. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.

An error message would be displayed.

Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.*

VLAN 30 will be deleted.

7. Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

delete vlan.dat

delete flash:vlan.dat

no vlan 20*

no switchport access vlan 20

8. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

show vlan brief

show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport*

show mac address-table interface Fa0/1

show interfaces trunk

9. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.

Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.*

Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.

Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

10. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.

Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.*

Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

11. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?

It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.

It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.

It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.*

It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

12. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.*

Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.

Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.

The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

13. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate*

S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable

S1(config-if)# switchport mode access

S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none

14. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch*

when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto

when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable

on links that should not be trunking*

on links that should dynamically attempt trunking

15. Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.

The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.

The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.

The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk.*

16. Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?

switchport nonegotiate

switchport mode dynamic auto

switchport trunk native vlan 66*

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99

17. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

The port becomes inactive.*

The port goes back to the default VLAN.

The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.

The port creates the VLAN again.

18. In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take advantage of?

an open Telnet connection

automatic encapsulation negotiation

forwarding of broadcasts

the default automatic trunking configuration*

19. Which switch feature ensures that no unicast, multicast, or broadcast traffic is passed between ports that are configured with this feature?

VLAN

PVLAN protected port*

ACL

switch port security

20. Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)

Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.*

Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular users.

Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk mode.

Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.*

Use SSH for all remote management access.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?

Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.

Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.

Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.

All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.*

22. Fill in the blank

Use the full command syntax.

The show vlan command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as the existing VLANs on the switch.

23. Match the DTP mode with its function. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

– not scored –

dynamic auto

nonegotiate

dynamic desirable

trunk

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?

PC-A, PC-B

PC-D, PC-E*

PC-A, PC-B, PC-E

PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E

PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 2 Exam Answers

1. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

VLAN 1*

Fa0/0

Fa0/1

interface connected to the default gateway

VLAN 99

2. In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?

CAM table overflow

MAC address flooding

DHCP starvation*

DHCP spoofing

3. What impact does the use of the

mdix auto

configuration command have

on an Ethernet interface on a switch?

automatically detects duplex settings

automatically detects interface speed

automatically detects copper cable type*

automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface

4. Which type of cable does a network administrator need to connect a PC to a switch to recover it after the Cisco IOS software fails to load?

a coaxial cable

a console cable*

a crossover cable

a straight-through cable

5. While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a switch port status LED is alternating between green and amber. What could this LED indicate?

The port has no link.

The port is experiencing errors.*

The port is administratively down.

A PC is using the wrong cable to connect to the port.

The port has an active link with normal traffic activity.

6. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a

Switch>

prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)

POST occurred normally.*

The boot process was interrupted.

There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.

A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.*

The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

7. Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface?

show interfaces

show controllers*

show processes

show running-config

8. Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.

There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.

There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.*

The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.

The interface might be configured as half-duplex.

9.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

Use SSH version 1.

Reconfigure the RSA key.

Configure SSH on a different line.

Modify the transport input command.*

10. Which protocol or service sends broadcasts containing the Cisco IOS software version of the sending device, and the packets of which can be captured by malicious hosts on the network?

CDP*

DHCP

DNS

SSH

11. Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)

Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.*

Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.

Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.

Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.

Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.*

12. Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?

increasing the size of the CAM table

configuring port security*

using ACLs to filter broadcast traffic on the switch

increasing the speed of switch ports

13. Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)

revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic*

educating employees about social engineering attacks

simulating attacks against the production network to*

determine any existing vulnerabilities

writing a security policy document for protecting networks

controlling physical access to user devices

14. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?

Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.

Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.

Clear the MAC address table on the switch.

Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.*

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which S1 switch port interface or interfaces should be configured with the ip dhcp snooping trust command if best practices are implemented?

only the G0/1 port

only unused ports

only the G0/1 and G0/24 ports*

only the G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports

only the G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports

16. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security 
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2 
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky*

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

The port has been shut down.

The port has two attached devices.

The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.*

The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?

A notification is sent.

A syslog message is logged.

Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.*

The interface will go into error-disabled state.

19. The network administrator enters the following commands on a Cisco switch:

Switch(config)# interface vlan1

Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

Switch(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the effect of entering these commands?

All devices attached to this switch must be in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to communicate.

The switch is able to forward frames to remote networks.

The address of the default gateway for this LAN is 192.168.1.2/24.

Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet are able to ping the switch at IP address 192.168.1.2.*

20. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.

Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.*

The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.

After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.

If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.*

21. Fill in the blank.

full-duplex communication allows both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.

22. Fill in the blank.

When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of shutdown until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.

23. Match the step to each switch boot sequence description. (not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
step 3
– not scored –
step 1
step 4
step 2
step 5
step 6

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Fill in the blank.

Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1?

ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 1 Exam Answers

1. What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains

aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries

provides access to the user*

provides high availability

2.What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?

acting as a backbone

aggregating all the campus blocks

aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries*

providing access to the user

3. A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)

lower bandwidth requirements

reduced cost for equipment and user training

easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability*

less required equipment to provide the same performance levels

simpler deployment for additional switch equipment*

4. What is a collapsed core in a network design?

a combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers

a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers*

a combination of the functionality of the access and core layers

a combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers

5. What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)

lower cost per switch

increased scalability*

lower forwarding rates

need for fewer power outlets*

availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation

6. Which switch form factor should be used when large port density, fault tolerance, and low price are important factors?

fixed-configuration switch

modular switch

rackable 1U switch

stackable switch*

7. An administrator purchases new Cisco switches that have a feature called StackPower. What is the purpose of this feature?

It enables many switches to be physically stacked in an equipment rack.

It enables many switches to be connected with a special fiber-optic power cable to provide higher bandwidth.

It enables many switches to be connected to increase port density.

It enables the sharing of power among multiple stackable switches.*

It enables AC power for a switch to be provided from a powered patch panel.

8. What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?

has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames

makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame

has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications*

provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds

9. Which type of transmission does a switch use when the destination MAC address is not contained in the MAC address table?

anycast

broadcast*

multicast

unicast

10. Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC1 asks the DHCP server for IPv4 addressing. The DHCP server sends it an IPv4 address. While PC2 is still booting up, PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?

to Fa0/1 only

to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only*

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only

11. What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?

source MAC address and incoming port number*

destination MAC address and incoming port number

source IP address and incoming port number

destination IP address and incoming port number

12. What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

forwards data based on logical addressing

duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port

learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address

determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address*

13. Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.*

SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

14. What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?

the memory space that is allocated to each switch port

the number of available ports*

the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port

the speed of each port

15. ABC, Inc. has about fifty hosts in one LAN. The administrator would like to increase the throughput of that LAN. Which device will increase the number of collision domains and thereby increase the throughput of the LAN?

host

hub

switch*

NIC

16. What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

to create fewer collision domains

to enhance user bandwidth*

to create more broadcast domains

to eliminate virtual circuits

to isolate traffic between segments*

to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

17. Fill in the blank.

A   _converged_   network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.

There are __12__  collision domains in the topology.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.

There are __five__ broadcast domains in the topology.

20. Match the forwarding characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

cut-throught:
+appropriate for high perfomance computing applications
+forwarding process can be begin after receiving the destination address
+may forward invalid frames

store-and-forward:
#error checking before forwarding
#forwarding process only begins after receiving the entire frame
#only forwards valid frames

 

CCNA 1 v5.0 + v5.02 + v5.03 ITN Final Exam Answers 2016

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

wiki

e-mail

weblog

instant messaging*

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

LAN

MAN

WAN*

WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS? 

flash memory*

NVRAM?

RAM

ROM

a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*

The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

to restart the ping process

to interrupt the ping process*

to exit to a different configuration mode

to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.

It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.

It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?

My Switch(config)#?

Switch(config)#?*

MySwitch(config)#?

My(config)#?

Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin

linevtyin*

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.

PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.*

PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

0.0.0.0

0.0.0.1

127.0.0.1*

192.168.1.1

255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

ARP

DHCP*

DNS*

FTP*

NAT

PPP

16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

ARP

BOOTP

ICMP*

IP*

PPP

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

Request for Comments*

IRTF research papers

protocol models

IEEE standards

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

IP address

default gateway address

MAC address*

logical address

19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

ARP, multicast

DNS, unicast

DNS, broadcast

ARP, broadcast*

PING, multicast

PING, broadcast

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

It accepts frames from the physical media.

It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.

It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.

It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.*

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

requiring proper grounding connections

twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*

wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding

designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference

avoiding sharp bends during installation

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*

Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.

Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*

Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.

Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

logical address

physical address

data

error detection*

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a

crossover Ethernet cable connection*

the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable

the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*

just the PC0 MAC address

PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

just the PC1 MAC address

just the PC2 MAC address?

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.

An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.*

A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.

A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network

to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*

to convert a URL name into an IP address

to provide secure Internet file transfer

to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

ARP

DNS

NAT*

SMB

DHCP

HTTP

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*

It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet switching*

microsegmentation

domain name resolution

path selection*

flow control

32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.

FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.

RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.*

NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.

ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.*

33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

NVRAM, RAM, TFTP

NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode*

setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP

TFTP, ROM, NVRAM

flash, ROM, setup mode

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.

The entire transmission is re-sent.

The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.172.168.1*

172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.20.4.4*

192.168.5.254*

224.6.6.6

36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

4

8

16*

32

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

to enable the router as an IPv6 router*

to permit only unicast packets on the router

to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?

FEC0::/10?

FDFF::/7?

FEBF::/10?

FF00::/8*

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

The DNS server addresses are incorrect.

The default gateway address in incorrect.*

The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.

The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

random static addresses to improve security

addresses from different subnets for redundancy

predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*

dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

Site 1

Site 2*

Site 3

Site 4

44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

/62

/64*

/66

/68*

/70

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

DHCPDISCOVER*

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST*

DHCPACK

DHCPNACK

46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

to require users to prove who they are

to determine which resources a user can access

to keep track of the actions of a user*

to provide challenge and response questions

47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

exec-timeout 30

service password-encryption

banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

192.168.9.254

192.168.10.1

192.168.10.2

192.168.11.252*

192.168.11.254

50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

broadcast SSID*

MAC filtering enabled

WEP encryption enabled

PSK authentication required

default administrator password*

52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

EAP

PSK

WEP

WPA*

53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP       is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

media

wireless NIC*

custom adapter

crossover cable

wireless bridge

wireless client software*

55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is            /60       .

56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

Stage 1 – perform the post

Stage 2 – load the bootstrap program

Stage 3 – Locate and load the Cisco IOS

Stage 4 – locate and load the configuration file

 

57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

when a cellular telephone provides the service

when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network

when a satellite dish is used

when a regular telephone line is used*

59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

audio conference, database, HTTP*

database, HTTP, audio conference

audio conference, HTTP, database

database, audio conference, HTTP

60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

RAM*

flash

NVRAM

disk drive

61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

Ctrl-Shift-X

Ctrl-Shift-6*

Ctrl-Z

Ctrl-C

63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

HR Switch(config)#?

Switch(config)#?*

HRSwitch(config)#?

HR(config)#?

Switch#

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

FastEthernet0/1

VLAN 1*

vty 0

console 0

66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

the TCP/IP stack on a network host*

connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices

connectivity between a PC and the default gateway

connectivity between two PCs on the same network

physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

switch

hub

router*

host

69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*

Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.

It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.

It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.

It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling*

71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

It is straightforward to troubleshoot.*

End devices are connected together by a bus.

It is easy to add and remove end devices.*

All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.

Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

to determine the physical address of the sending device

to verify the network layer protocol information

to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends

to check the frame for possible transmission errors*

to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

It initiates an ARP request.

It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

cut-through

store-and-forward

fragment-free

fast-forward*

75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network*

the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network

the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network

the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

stores routing tables

allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard

maintains instructions for POST diagnostics*

holds ARP cache

stores bootstrap program*

77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

A console port is used for remote management of the router.

A console port is not used for packet forwarding.*

Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.

Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.

The entire transmission is re-sent.

The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

192.0.2.199

198.51.100.201

203.0.113.211*

209.165.201.223

80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.20.30.1*

172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.30.5.3*

192.168.5.5*

224.6.6.6

81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

private addresses

public addresses*

multicast addresses

experimental addresses

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

11

12

13*

14

83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.16/28

192.168.1.64/27*

192.168.1.128/27

192.168.1.96/28*

192.168.1.192/28

84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

/23

/24

/25*

/26

85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

Transmission Control Protocol

Real-Time Transport Protocol*

Secure File Transfer Protocol

Video over Internet Protocol

86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

to determine the active TCP connections on a PC

to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server

to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*

to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.

The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.*

An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.

An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

EAP

PSK

WEP

WPA*

89. Fill in the blank.

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as     __full-duplex__         .

90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

area A

area B

area C*

area D

93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices

to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally

to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page*

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions

financial transactions, audio conference, web page

95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

RAM*

flash

NVRAM

disk drive

96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

The configuration will be copied to flash.

The configuration will load when the router is restarted.*

The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.

The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

97. What information does the loopback test provide?

The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*

The device has end-to-end connectivity.

DHCP is working correctly.

The Ethernet cable is working correctly.

The device has the correct IP address on the network.

98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.

It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*

It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

CSMA/CD

priority ordering

CSMA/CA*

token passing

100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.

The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.

The switch drops the frame.*

The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

0.0.0.0

255.255.255.255

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*

127.0.0.1

01-00-5E-00-AA-23

102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection*

the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable

the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

cut-through switching

store-and-forward switching*

fragment-free switching

fast-forward switching

104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

adjacency tables*

MAC-address tables

routing tables

ARP tables

forwarding information base (FIB)*

105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.

It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward the destination host.*

It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.

It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

ARP

DNS

NAT*

SMB

DHCP

HTTP

107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.

The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.

The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.*

The gateway of last resort was not configured.

108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.

The entire transmission is re-sent.

The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?

the destination IP address

the destination port number*

the source IP address

the source port number

111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.*

A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.

A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.

Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

MAC address

IP address*

kernel

shell

subnet mask*

113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*

Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*

Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

It eliminates most address configuration errors.*

It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.

It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.

It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.

It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

2001:DB8:BC15::0

2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*

2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1

2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

compression*

addressing

encryption*

session control

authentication

117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

to require users to prove who they are*

to determine which resources a user can access

to keep track of the actions of a user

to provide challenge and response questions

118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

EAP

PSK

WEP

WPA*

119. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a         Multicast            message.

120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

121. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is .​ ”   winner   ”

122. A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?

This entry refers to the PC itself.

This entry maps to the default gateway.

This is a static map entry.*

This is a dynamic map entry.

123. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

Packet Length

Destination Address*

Flag

Time-to-Live

124. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?

2001:db8:abc:1::1

2001:db8:abc:5::1  *

2001:db8:abc:5::2

2001:db8:abc:10::15

125. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page*

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions

financial transactions, audio conference, web page

126. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin*

lineconin

linevtyin

127. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

error correction through a collision detection method

session control using port numbers

data link layer addressing*

placement and removal of frames from the media

detection of errors through CRC calculations*

delimiting groups of bits into frames*

conversion of bits into data signals

128. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?

Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.

Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.

CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.*

Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).

129. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?

to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)

to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses*

to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making

to update the forwarding information base (FIB)

130. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?

It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.

In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.

When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.

Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one host to another.*

131. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?

Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.

ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can be used on the Internet.*

ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that can be used on the Internet.

Both users must be on the same network.

132. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local*

unique local

site local

global unicast

133. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

to ensure the fastest possible download speed

because HTTP is a best-effort protocol

because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

because HTTP requires reliable delivery*

134. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

10111010

11010101

11001010*

11011010

135. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*

2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

2001:DB8::AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

136. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​

11

12

13*

14

137. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

TTL field

CRC field

Hop Limit field*

Time Exceeded field

138. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

139. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

port filtering

stateful packet inspection*

URL filtering

application filtering

140. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to the remote host?

trace 10.1.1.5

traceroute 10.1.1.5

tracert 10.1.1.5*

ping 10.1.1.5

141. Fill in the blank.

To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be      grounded        correctly

142. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

143. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?

The cable insulation could be flammable.*

Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.

Network cables could be exposed to water.

The network cable could explode.

144. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?

a multimeter

an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer

a cable tester*

an ohmmeter

145. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?

capacitance

wire map*

inductance

flexibility

146. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*

just the PC0 MAC address

PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

just the PC1 MAC address

just the PC2 MAC address​

147. Which function is provided by TCP?

data encapsulation

detection of missing packets*

communication session control

path determination for data packets

148. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?

an ARP table

a routing table*

the destination PC physical address

a switching table

149. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?

an inband router interface

a console port

a serial WAN interface

an AUX port*

150. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

user executive mode

global configuration mode

any line configuration mode*

privileged EXEC mode

151. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

152. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

2

21

250

306*

2921

153. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?

IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.

A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.*

A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.

Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

154. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

subnet mask

DNS address

host IP address

default gateway address*

155. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

172.16.16.255

172.16.20.255

172.16.19.255*

172.16.23.255

172.16.255.255

156. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/29********

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28

157. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?

2

3

4*

5

6

 

158. A  logical    topology influences the type of network framing and media access control that will be used.

159. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a password.

Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will require authentication.*

Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.

Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.

160. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?

It will remove encryption from all passwords.

It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.​

It will not reverse any encryption.*

It will reverse only the enable password encryption.

161. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

162. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

163. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

store-and-forward switching

fast-forward switching*

CRC switching

fragment-free switching*

QOS switching

164. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)

Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.

A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to it.*

An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.

An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.

Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.*

165. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

to identify the broadcast address of the destination network

to identify the host address of the destination host

to identify faulty frames

to identify the network address of the destination network*

166. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

234.17.10.9

234.16.12.10

236.17.12.6

236.17.12.10*

167. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

168. Fill in the blank.

Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide the flexibility to add new modules have a   Modular    configuration.

169.


Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?

11

12

13*

14

170. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the networK.*

A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREOUEST message.

The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and sub net masK to be assigned, the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default gateway.

If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a unicast DHCPREOUEST message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP information.

171. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

EAP
PSK
WEP*
WPA

172. A network administrator notices that the throughput on the network appears lower than expected when compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which three factors can
explain this difference? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic*
the type of data encapsulation in use
the type of traffic*
the number and type of network devices that the data is crossing*
the bandwidth of the connection to the ISP
the reliability of the network backbone

173. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER*
DHCPPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK

174. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses console line to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

175. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation*
cladding
immunity to electrical hazards
woven copper braid or metallic foil

176. How many bits would need to be borrowed if a network admin were given the IP addressing scheme of 172.16.0.0/16 and needed no more than 16 subnet with equal number of hosts?

10
12
2
4*
8

177. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

178. Which statement best describes the operation of the File Transfer Protocol?

An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP server uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.*

An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

179.  A client is establishing a TCP session with a server. How is the acknowledgment number in the response segment to the client determined?

The acknowledgment number field is modified by adding 1 to the randomly chosen initial sequence number in response to the client.*
The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an acknowledgment packet and synchronization packet back to the client.
The acknowledgment number field uses a random source port number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an acknowledgment packet back to the client.

180. Why does layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP and subnet Mask?

to identify host address and destination host
to identify network address of destination host*
to identify faulty frames
to identify broadcast address of destination network

181. There was also a question about if you activated service password encryption in the past and you prompt “no service password encryption” what password are modified ?

no password at all*
password of the lines are in clear
login password
?

182. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

message encapsulation
flow control
message encoding
access method*

183. What is the primary reason to subnet IPv6 prefixes?
to conserve IPv6 addresses
to avoid wasting IPv6 addresses
to conserve IPv6 prefixes
to create a hierarchical Layer 3 network design*

184. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
multicast
global unicast
link-local*
loopback

185. Which statement describes data throughput?
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media under perfect conditions.
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.*
It indicates the capacity of a particular medium to carry data.
It is the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP.

186. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
IPv4 multicast addresses are directly mapped to IEEE 802 (Ethernet) MAC addresses using the last ___4___ of the 28 available bits in the IPv4 multicast group address.

187. How could a faulty network device create a source of hazard for a user? (Choose two.)

It could stop functioning.*
It could apply dangerous voltage to other pieces of equipment.
It could explode.*
It could produce an unsafe electromagnetic field.
It could apply dangerous voltage to itself.

188. What are three important considerations when planning the structure of an IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.)

preventing duplication of addresses*
providing and controlling access*
documenting the network
monitoring security and performance
conserving addresses*
implementing new services

189. What is the metric value that is used to reach the 10.1.1.0 network in the following routing table entry?

D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0

24
90
05
2170112*

190. Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission and low overhead? (Choose two)

VoIP*
DNS*
HTTP
FTP
POP3

191. What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers?

It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is accepting.*
It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process over again.
It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.
It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.

192. To what legacy address class does the address 10.0.0.0 belong?

Class B
Class D
Class A*
Class C
Class E

193. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?

radio waves
fiber
microwave*
UTP

194. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

EUI-64
static
SLAAC*
stateful DHCPv6

195. What is a characteristic of DNS?

DNS servers can cache recent queries to reduce DNS query traffic.*

DNS servers are programmed to drop requests for name translations that are not within their zone.

All DNS servers must maintain mappings for the entire DNS structure.

DNS relies on a hub-and-spoke topology with centralized servers.

196. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

2001:DB8:BC15

2001:DB8:BC15:A*

2001:DB8:BC15:A:1

2001:DB8:BC15:A:12

197. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)

collision detection

placement of frames on the media

performing error detection

encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer*

routing packets toward the destination*

198.

It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is: The PC2 will be able to ping 192.168.1.1*

199. What information is maintained in the CEF adjacency table?

Layer 2 next hops

MAC address to IPv4 address mappings

IP address to interface mappings

the IP addresses of all neighboring routers

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2017