CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 4 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 4 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks

1

Launch PT   Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the SSID of the connected network and which message is displayed in the browser window?

SSID: Home-Network
Message: Well done!​

SSID: Home-Network
Message: Good job!

SSID: Home-Net
Message:Congratulations! You did it!​

SSID: Home-Net
Message:Congratulations! You were able to connect it! *


A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?

Change to WPA2 authentication.

Deploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender.*

Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.

Upgrade the firmware on the AP.


Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured?

WPA

WEP*

WPA2-Personal

WPA2


Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)

RADIUS authentication server

repeater

access point*

WLAN controller

Ethernet switch*


Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?

IEEE

FCC

ITU-R

Wi-Fi Alliance*


Which feature of 802.11n wireless access points allows them to transmit data at faster speeds than previous versions of 802.11 Wi-Fi standards did?

MITM

SPS

MIMO*

WPS


Which type of wireless topology is created when two or more Basic Service Sets are interconnected by Ethernet?

ESS*

BSS

IBISS

ad hoc WLAN

WiFi Direct


If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)

1*

3

5

6*

8

11*


What type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?

Yagi

omnidirectional*

directional

dish

10 
Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)

802.11b*

802.11n*

802.11ac

802.11a

802.11g*

11 
What is the purpose of the Distributed Coordination Function in an IEEE 802.11 WLAN environment?

It is used to send data over a half-duplex connection.

It is used in a full-duplex environment to detect collisions.

It allows a client to detect whether or not a channel is clear prior to transmission.*

It allows the client to change transmission channels.

12 
An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?

rogue access point*

spoofing

cracking

denial of service

13 
During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?

encryption

authentication

discovery

association*

probing

14 
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
Ad hoc wireless topologies sometimes can use a feature called ”  tethering   ” to enable a smartphone to create a personal hotspot.

15 
What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?​

It is the best way to secure a wireless network.

Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.​*

SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.​

It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no concern.

16 
A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?

data frame

beacon frame

management frame*

control frame

17 
Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?

authentication

beacon*

probe response

probe request

18 
A company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network. Some users are complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which solution is the best method to enhance the performance of the wireless network?

Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless clients.

Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow connections.

Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands.*

Upgrade the firmware on the wireless access point.

19 
For which discovery mode will an AP generate the most traffic on a WLAN?

open mode

passive mode*

active mode

mixed mode

20 
Which statement defines the control frame operation between two stations?

After receiving a data frame, the receiving station will send an ACK frame to the sending station if no errors are found.​*

A station responds to an RTS frame with an ACK frame, thus providing permission for the requesting station to send a data frame.​

If the sending station does not receive an ACK frame within a predetermined period of time, the sending station will drop the connection.​

A station sends an RTS frame as the first step in a three-way handshake that is required before sending data frames.

21 
What is a difference between Cisco APs that operate in a home environment and Cisco APs that operate in a corporate environment?

Some corporate AP models can operate in either autonomous mode or controller-based mode.*

Controller-based APs are used in the corporate environment, and they are server-dependent devices that require an initial configuration to operate.

Autonomous APs are used only in the home environment, and they incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device.​

Cisco corporate APs do not support PoE.

22

Place the options in the following order: 
– not scored – 
MITM 
spoofed disconnct DoS 
CTS flood DoS

23

Place the options in the following order: 
– not scored – 
Step 2 
Step 5 
Step 1 
Step 3 
– not scored – 
Step 4

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 3 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 3 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks


When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?

desirable

auto

active*

passive

2

 

Place the options in the following order:

This command shows information about the status of the port involved in the Etherchannel.

– not scored –

This command shows information about the reliability of the port-channel.

This command is used to check what port channels are configured on a switch.

This command shows the list of ports involved in the port channel and the time since the ports were bundled.

What is an advantage of using LACP?

decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop

provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation

allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links*

decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel

increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices


Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?

interface port-channel interface-identifier*

interface interface-identifier

interface range interface-identifier

channel-group group-identifier

5

Launch PT  Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from Laptop0 towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)

The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.

The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.

The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.

The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.*

The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different VLANs.*


Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between two directly connected switches? (Choose three.)

speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel

VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel

domain names on the switches

7


Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

trunking

EtherChannel*

HSRP

PortFast


Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?

It requires more physical links than LACP does.

It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.

It is Cisco proprietary.*

It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.

It requires full duplex.


Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.​*

switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.​

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.​

10 
What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?

Shut down each of the affected interfaces.*

Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.

Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.

Enable each of the affected interfaces.

Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.

11 
Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)

STP

802.3ad*

EtherChannel

RSTP

PAgP*

12


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network administrator make? (Choose two.)

The EtherChannel bundle is working.

One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.*

Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is increased.

LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.

Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.

The EtherChannel bundle is not working.*

13 
Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

EtherChannel can connect up to a maximum of eight separate links.

EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.*

14 
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

active

desirable

auto*

passive

15 
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

16


Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?

Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.*

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.​

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.​

Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.​

17 
An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?​

S1-on and S2-active​

S1-passive and S2-active*

S1-passive and S2-passive​

S1-on and S2-passive

18 
What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?

aggregate ports by using EtherChannel*

insert a router between the switches

increase uplink speed

add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains

19


Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.

The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.

The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.*

The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.​

20 
Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)

destination IP to source IP

destination MAC to destination IP

source IP to destination IP*

source MAC to destination MAC*

destination IP to destination MAC

destination MAC to source MAC

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks


Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?

STP

Rapid PVST+

PVST+

MST*


Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

STP*

RSTP*

MSTP

Rapid PVST+

PVST+

3


Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?

HSRP

VRRP

GLBP*

FHRP


A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.

Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.

Link types are determined automatically.*

Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.


Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

root ports

designated ports

trunk ports

edge ports*


If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

highest IP address

lowest MAC address*

lowest IP address

highest MAC address


Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

learning

blocking

forwarding*

listening


To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

The role of the ports in all VLANs.*

The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

The number of broadcasts received on each root port.

The status of native VLAN ports.

The root bridge BID.*

9

Launch PT    Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which switch is the root bridge?​

Switch_1

Switch_2

Switch_4*

Switch_3

10 
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The spanning-tree ” mode rapid-pvst ” global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.

11 
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0*

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440

12 
Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

VRRPv2*

SLB

GLBP

HSRP

13 
Fill in the blank.
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ” virtual ” router.

14 
Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

extended system ID*

MAC address*

port ID

IP address

cost

bridge priority*

15 
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.

Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.*

Routers continually forward packets to other routers.

The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.

16 
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

redundant links between Layer 2 switches*

removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches*

link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes

static default routes

implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts

17 
What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

MAC address

VLAN ID*

port ID

IP address

18 
What is an advantage of PVST+?

PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.*

PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.

PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.

19 
What is the purpose of HSRP?

It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.

It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.*

20 
In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)

listening

learning*

forwarding*

disabled

blocking

21


Place the options in the following order: 
Step 4 
– not scored – 
Step 3 
Step 1 
Step 2

22


Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

192.168.2.0

192.168.2.1

192.168.2.2

192.168.2.100*

23 
What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.

ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.

New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.*

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 1 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 3 v5 SN Chapter 1 Exam Answers 2014 

Scaling Networks


What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

increased network management options

reduced costs*

increased flexibility*

increased bandwidth availability

decreased number of critical points of failure


A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a replacement?

a PoE device

another fixed configuration router

a modular router*

a Layer 3 switch


What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

It manages the VLAN database.

It determines the best path to send packets.*

It connects multiple IP networks.*


Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume

the installation of redundant power supplies

the use of the building switch block approach*

the use of a collapsed core design


How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?

by installing devices with failover capabilities

by deploying a collapsed core model

by organizing the network to control traffic patterns*

by limiting the size of failure domains


As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure


Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

Spanning Tree Protocol*

virtual LANs

link aggregation

virtual private networks


Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.*

They are best used as distribution layer switches.

They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.

They are modular switches.

9


Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

PC_3 and PC_2

AP_2 and AP_1

S4 and PC_2

PC_3 and AP_2*

S1 and S4

10 
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

show flash

show startup-config*

show NVRAM

show version

show running-config*

11 
A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.*

Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.

Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.

12 
Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)

at least one network interface that is connected and operational*

a terminal emulation client

a direct connection to the console port

a direct connection to the auxiliary port

Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device*

13

Place the options in the following order:

connectivity

– not scored –

identification

access remote networks

security

14 
In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management

on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility*

to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access

on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

15 
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.

They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.*

They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.

They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
16 
Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices*

to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
17 
What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.*

It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.

It uses a terminal emulation client.

18 
Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)

failure domains

services module

collapsed core

redundant power supplies*

failover capabilities*

CCNA 2 v5.02 + v5.03 RSE Final Exam Answers 2016

1. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. *

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

2. Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level   ” 1 ”  ultimate routes.

3. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

ingress port buffering
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching *
borderless switching

4. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0*

5.

1

3*

4

2

6. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID *
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID

7. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365*

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary.

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

8. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9. A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device*
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN

10

Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
The ipv6 route command was used.
the ip route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.*

11

 

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport*

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# ip routing*

12. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.*
Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
All devices in all VLANs see the frame.

13. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

 

the correct answer of question 13 is

Step 1– Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.

Step 2– Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.

Step 3– Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

Step 4– Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database

Step 5– Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best

14. Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
computer type
source TCP hello address
ICMP message type*
destination UDP port number *

destination MAC address

15

Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0*
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

16. How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*
the lowest MAC address on an active interface

17. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict*

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

18. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

speed of convergence*
scalability*

ISP selection
the autonomous system that is used
campus backbone architecture

19.

ultimate route

child route

default route

level 1 parent route*

20. What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.*
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

21. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

22. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

permit ip any host ip_address
permit icmp any any nd-na* 
permit ip any any
deny ip any any

23. Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.)


24. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*
Cost equals bandwidth.
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

25

 

Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

outbound*
R2 S0/0/1
R1 S0/0/0
inbound
R1 Gi0/1.12*
R2 Gi0/1.20

26.
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Switch(config)# no vlan 100*
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

27.
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1* 
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

28.
What is a function of the distribution layer?

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*
network access to the user
fault isolation
high-speed backbone connectivity

29.
A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?

static NAT
dynamic NAT*
port address translation
DHCP

30.
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The link interface subnet masks must match.* 
The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.*
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

31. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the cost of that link* 
the type of network link*
the link bandwidth
the link next-hop IP address
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*

32. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
There is no end-to-end addressing.*
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.

33

 

Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.*
The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.

34

 

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.*

35. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.

36. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk*

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

37. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.*
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.* 
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.*
Configuration of static routes is error-free.
Static routes scale well as the network grows.

38. When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair*
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration

39. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port*
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the destination MAC address and the incoming port

40

 

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*
The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

41. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?

The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.*
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.

42

 

Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1*
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

43. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
A cable has not been attached to the port.*
An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.

44. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

access list number between 100 and 199*
source subnet mask and wildcard mask
default gateway address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask*
destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 1 and 99
destination address and wildcard mask*

45. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

0.0.0.127
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255*
0.0.255.255

46. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message*
a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message

47. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

They request more information about their databases.
They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs*

48. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

49. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.*
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced

50. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip helper-address
ip address dhcp* 
ip dhcp pool
service dhcp

51. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.*
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols

52. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

53

 

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains*

54. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

show processes
show cdp neighbor
show access-lists*
show ip route
show running-config*

55. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

IPsec*
DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP

56. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which keyword is displayed on the web browser?

NAT works!
Goodjob!
Welldone!*
NAT configured!

57

Refer to the exhibit.

What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?

192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22*
192.168.0.0/21

58. Fill in the blank.
Static routes are configured by the use of the ” ip route” global configuration command.

59. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses*

 

60. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

access – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

access – trunk

dynamic desirable – trunk*

 

61. Fill in the blank.
The OSPF Type 1 packet is the __hello___ packet.

 

62. Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

routing protocol

outgoing interface

metric

administrative distance*

 

63. Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?
flash

NVRAM

RAM*

ROM

 

64. Fill in the blank.

The default administrative distance for a static route is _1_ .

 

65. Fill in the blank.

Static routes are configured by the use of the global configuration command.

ANS: ip route

 

66. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.

Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.*

Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
67. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*

The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.

The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.

 

68. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

-ip access-group 5 out

-access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

-access-list 5 deny any

-access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

-ip access-group 5 in

-access-class 5 in*

 

69. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.*

Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.​

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.

 

70. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

 

71. Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?
Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
Change the administrative distance to 120.*
72. Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one for VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?
SW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.
SW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.*
SW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.

 

73. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.*
OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.

 

74. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)
Change the native VLAN on both ports.
Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.*
Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.*

===============================================

75. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?
to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
to determine which ports are functioning
to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding*
to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows

===============================================

76. A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)
permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80
deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80*
permit ipv6 any any*
deny ipv6 any any
ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in
ip access-group NoWeb in

===============================================

77. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and 172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to neighbors?
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0*
router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

===============================================

78.

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

child route
level 1 parent route*
default route
ultimate route
===============================================
79.
 
 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?
fully specified static route
recursive static route*
directly attached static route
floating static route
===============================================
80. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0*
255.255.255.224
===============================================
81. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 128.107.52.27?
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0*
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
===============================================
 
82. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?
1
5*
8
20
25
30

======================

83. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

Flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM

======================

84. A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect*
shutdown

======================

85. A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this ACL?
access-group 11 in*
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

======================

86. Refer to the exhibit.

What address will summarize the LANs attached to routers 2-A and 3-A and can be configured in a summary static route to advertise them to an upstream neighbor?
10.0.0.0/24
10.0.0.0/23
10.0.0.0/22
10.0.0.0/21*

======================

87. A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80

deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80*

deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80*

permit ipv6 any any

deny ipv6 any any*

ip access-group WebFilter in

ipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in

======================

88. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

192.168.5.64

192.168.5.0*

192.168.0.0

No address is displayed.

======================

89. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the interval web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board Office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implement the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed
the ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers
named ACLs requite the use of port numbers*
the ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction

===================

90. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?
1
2*
3
4
5
6

===================

91. A router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for specific situation?

Metric*
Colour
Meter
Bread

===================

92. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

Ipv6
OSPF
Link-access
To have only a link-local IPv6 address*
Protocol

===================

93. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.*
Half duplex has only one channel.
All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.*
Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

===================

94. Fill in the blank.
The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network. __VoIP__

===================

95. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

===================

96. Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?
S1(config-if)# mdix auto*
S1# auto-mdix
S1(config-if)# auto-mdix
S1# mdix auto
S1(config)# mdix auto
S1(config)# auto-mdix

===================

97. What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured for OSPF?

Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.*
All of above
Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol

===================

98. A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that are reachable over a TCP session
routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol*
routers that reside in the same area
routers that exchange LSAs

===================

99. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

Address translation is working.*
Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.*
Two types of NAT are enabled.*
One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

 

100. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)
console access –Not Scored–

full operating system > flash

limited operating system > ROM

routing table > RAM

startup configuration file > NVRAM

 

===================
101. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*
Configure SSH for remote management.*
Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

===================

102.

 Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?
0.0.0.0
10.16.100.128*
10.16.100.2
110
791

 

103.

Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

1

4

2

3*

104. 


Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10*

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

105. Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

a collapsed core network design*

a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

106. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

1

2

3

4

5*

6

11

107. A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for this specific situation?

routing protocol

outgoing interface

metric

administrative distance*

108. Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

administrative distance*

metric

outgoing interface

routing protocol

109. The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard mask?

0.0.0.31

0.0.0.255

0.0.0.127*

0.0.0.63

110. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

FF02::5*

FF02::6*

FF02::A

2001:db8:cafe::1

FF02::1:2

FE80::1*

 

111. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2 LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from R1?

782

74

128

65

112. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect
shutdown

113. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2*

172.16.26.254

172.16.47.254

172.16.48.5

114. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)

mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces*

a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used

use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces

one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port

mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers

115. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs as many switch ports as possible for end devices and the business is using the most common type of inter-VLAN method. What type of inter-VLAN interconnectivity is best to use between the switch and the router if R1 routes for all VLANs?

one link between the switch and the router with the router using three router subinterfaces

one link between the switch and the router with the one switch port being configured in access mode

three links between the switch and the router with the three switch ports being configured in access mode

two links between the switch and the router with the two switch ports being configured in access mode

116. As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses

117. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the internal web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.

The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.

Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.

The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

118. Refer to the exhibit. A new network policy requires an ACL denying FTP and Telnet access to a Corp file server from all interns. The address of the file server is 172.16.1.15 and all interns are assigned addresses in the 172.18.200.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, no one in the Corp network can access any of the servers. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.

The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.

Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.

The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

119. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?​

65*

CCNA 2 v5 RSE Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer 2014

CCNA 2 v5 RSE Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer 2014

CCNA Routing and Switching
Routing and Switching Essentials

Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer

A few things to keep in mind while completing this activity:

  1. Do not use the browser Back button or close or reload any exam windows during the exam.
  2. Do not close Packet Tracer when you are done. It will close automatically.
  3. Click the Submit Assessment button in the browser window to submit your work.

Introduction

In this practice skills assessment, you will configure the Our Town network with single-area OSPFv2. In addition, you will configure router-on-a-stick routing between VLANs. You will also implement NAT, DHCP and access lists.

All IOS device configurations should be completed from a direct terminal connection to the device console.

Some values that are required to complete the configurations have not been given to you. In those cases, create the values that you need to complete the requirements. These values may include certain IP addresses, passwords, interface descriptions, banner text, and other values.

For the sake of time, many repetitive but important configuration tasks have been omitted from this activity. Many of these tasks, especially those related to device security, are essential elements of a network configuration. The intent of this activity is not to diminish the importance of full device configurations.

You will practice and be assessed on the following skills:

  • Configuration of initial device settings
  • IPv4 address assignment
  • Configuration and addressing of router interfaces
  • Configuration of a router as a DHCP server
  • Implementation of static and dynamic NAT
  • Configuration of the single-area OSPFv2 routing protocol
  • Configuration of a default route and static summary routes
  • Configuration of VLANs and trunks
  • Configuration of routing between VLANs
  • Configuration of ACL to limit device access

You are required to configure the following:

Police:

  • Configuration of initial router settings
  • Interface configuration and IPv4 addressing
  • Configuration of DHCP
  • Configuration of multiarea OSPFv2
  • Configuration of routing between VLANs

Central:

  • Interface configuration and IPv4 addressing
  • Configuration of multiarea OSPFv2
  • Configuration of IPv4 route summarization
  • Configuration and propagation of a default route
  • Configuration of static summary routes
  • Configuration of static and dynamic NAT
  • Configuration of ACLs

Fire:

  • Interface configuration and IPv4 addressing
  • Configuration of multiarea OSPFv2
  • Configuration of a static summary route

Police-SW1:

  • Configuration of VLANs
  • Assignment of switch ports to VLANs
  • Configuration of trunking
  • Configuration of unused switch ports

Police-SW2:

  • Configuration of VLANs
  • Assignment of switch ports to VLANs
  • Configuration of trunking
  • Configuration of unused switch ports

Internal PC hosts:

  • Configuration as DHCP clients


Addressing Tables

Note: You are provided with the networks that interfaces should be configured on. Unless you are told to do differently in the detailed instructions below, you are free to choose the host addresses to assign.

Addressing Table:

Device

Interface

Network

Comments

Police

S0/0/0

192.168.10.104/30

any address in the network

Gi0/0.45

192.168.45.0/24

first address in the network

Gi0/0.47

192.168.47.0/24

first address in the network

Gi0/0.101

192.168.101.0/24

first address in the network

Central

S0/0/0

192.168.10.104/30

any address in the network

S0/0/1

192.168.10.112/30

any address in the network

S0/1/0

198.51.100.0/28

first address in the network

Gi0/0

192.168.18.40/29

first address in the network

Fire

S0/0/0

192.168.10.124/30

second address in the network

S0/0/1

192.168.10.112/30

any address in the network

Police-SW1

VLAN 101

192.168.101.0/24

any address in the network

Police-SW2

VLAN 101

192.168.101.0/24

any address in the network

Pre-configured addresses for reference:

Device

Address

Town Server

192.168.18.46/29

NetAdmin Host

203.0.113.18

Outside Host

203.0.113.128

Public Server

209.165.201.235

S3 Host

192.168.200.10/24

S6 Host

192.168.201.10/24

S5 Host

192.168.202.10/24

VLAN Table:

VLAN Number

VLAN Name

VLAN Network

Device:Port

45

HR

192.168.45.0/24

Police-SW1: Fa0/10
Police-SW2: Fa0/3

47

records

192.168.47.0/24

Police-SW1: Fa0/15
Police-SW2: Fa0/21

101

comm

192.168.101.0/24

SVI

Instructions

All configurations must be performed through a direct terminal connection to the device consoles.

Step 1: Determine the Addresses to Assign

Determine the IP addresses that you will use for the required interfaces on the three routers and two switches. Use the information in the Addressing Table and follow the guidelines below:

  • Assign the first IP addresses in the networks that are provided in the Addressing Table to the LAN interfaces.
  • Assign the first address in the Central subnet to the interface that is connected to the Internet.
  • Assign any valid host address in the networks that are provided in the Addressing Table to the serial interfaces.
  • The host PCs will receive IP addresses over DHCP.

Step 2: Configure Police

  • Configure Police with the following:
  • Configure the router host name: PoliceDept  

Router(config)# hostname PoliceDept

  • Prevent the router from attempting to resolve command line entries to IP addresses.

PoliceDept(config)# no ip domain-lookup 

  • Protect privileged EXEC mode from unauthorized access with the MD5 encrypted password.

PoliceDept(config)# enable secret [password]

  • Prevent device status messages from interrupting command line entries at the device console.

PoliceDept(config)# line con 0

PoliceDept(config-line)# logging synchronous

  • Secure the router console and terminal lines.

PoliceDept(config)# line console 0

password [password]

login

PoliceDept(config)# line vty 0 4

password [password]

login

  • Prevent all passwords from being viewed in clear text in the device configuration file.

PoliceDept(config)# service password-encryption

  • Configure a message-of-the-day banner.

PoliceDept(config)# banner motd “message-of-the-day”

Step 3: Configure the Router Physical Interfaces

Configure the interfaces of the routers for full connectivity with the following:

  • IP addresses as shown in the addressing table.
  • Describe the operational Police serial interface. The Police Ethernet interfaces will be configured at the end of this assessment.
  • DCE settings where appropriate. Use a rate of 128000.

PoliceDept(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
PoliceDept(config-if)#bandwidth 128
PoliceDept(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.105 255.255.255.252
PoliceDept(config-if)#description Police and Central
PoliceDept(config-if)#clock rate 128000
PoliceDept(config-if)#no shutdown

Central(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
Central(config-if)#bandwidth 128
Central(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.106 255.255.255.252
Central(config-if)#no shutdown

Central(config)# interface Serial0/0/1
Central(config-if)#bandwidth 128
Central(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.114 255.255.255.252
Central(config-if)#clock rate 128000
Central(config-if)#no shutdown

Central(config)# interface g0/0
Central(config-if)#ip address 192.168.18.41 255.255.255.248
Central(config-if)#no shutdown

Central(config)# interface Serial0/1/0
Central(config-if)#ip address 198.51.100.1 255.255.255.240
Central(config-if)#no shutdown

Fire(config)# interface Serial0/0/1
Fire(config-if)#bandwidth 128
Fire(config-if)#ip address 198.51.100.1 255.255.255.240
Fire(config-if)#no shutdown

Step 4: Configure static and default routing

Configure the following static routes:

  • Manually configure default routes to the Internet. Use the exit interface argument. All hosts on the internal LANs and School Network networks should be able to reach the Internet.

PoliceDept(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

Central(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0

Fire(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1

  • It has been decided to use static routes to reach the branch networks that are connected to Fire. Use a single summary to represent the branch networks in the most efficient way possible. Configure the summary static route onCentral and Fire using the exit interface argument.

Central(config)#ip route 192.168.200.0 255.255.252.0 s0/0/1

Fire(config)#ip route 192.168.200.0 255.255.252.0 s0/0/0

Step 5: Configure OSPF Routing

Configure single-area OSPFv2 to route between all internal networks. The branch networks are not routed with OSPFv2.

  • Use a process ID of 10.The routers should be configured in area 0.
  • Use the correct inverse masks for all network statements. Do not use quad zero masks (0.0.0.0).

Step 6: Customize single-area OSPFv2

Customize single-area OSPFv2 by performing the following configuration tasks:

a. Set the bandwidth of the serial interfaces to 128 kb/s.

b. Configure OSPF router IDs as follows:

  • Police: 1.1.1.1
  • Central: 2.2.2.2
  • Fire: 3.3.3.3

c. Configure the OSPF cost of the link between Police and Central to 7500.

d. Prevent routing updates from being sent out of any of the LAN interfaces that are routed with OSPFv2. Do not use the default keyword in the commands you use to do this.

Configuration step 5 and step 6

PoliceDept(config)#router ospf 10

PoliceDept(config-router)#router-id 1.1.1.1

PoliceDept(config-router)#network 192.168.10.104 0.0.0.3 area 0
PoliceDept(config-router)#network 192.168.45.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
PoliceDept(config-router)#network 192.168.47.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
PoliceDept(config-router)#network 192.168.101.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

PoliceDept(config-router)#passive-interface g0/0.45
PoliceDept(config-router)#passive-interface g0/0.47
PoliceDept(config-router)#passive-interface g0/0.101

PoliceDept(config)#interface s0/0/0
PoliceDept(config-if)#bandwidth 128
PoliceDept(config-if)#ip ospf cost 7500

Central(config)#router ospf 10
Central(config-router)#router-id 2.2.2.2
Central(config-router)#network 192.168.10.104 0.0.0.3 area 0
Central(config-router)#network 192.168.10.112 0.0.0.3 area 0
Central(config-router)#network 192.168.18.40 0.0.0.7 area 0
Central(config-router)#passive-interface g0/0

Central(config)#interface s0/0/0
Central(config-if)#bandwidth 128
Central(config-if)#ip ospf cost 7500

Central(config)#interface s0/0/1
Central(config-if)#bandwidth 128

Fire(config)#router ospf 10
Fire(config-router)#router-id 3.3.3.3
Fire(config-router)#network 192.168.10.112 0.0.0.3 area 0

Fire(config)#interface s0/0/1
Fire(config-if)#bandwidth 128

Step 7: Configure VLANs and Trunking

Configure Police-SW1 and Police-SW2 with VLANs and trunk ports as follows:

  • Refer to the VLAN table above for the VLAN numbers and names that should be configured on both switches.
  • Configure names for the VLANs. The VLAN names must be configured to match the names in the VLAN Table exactly (case and spelling).

On Police-SW1

Police-SW1(config)#vlan 45
Police-SW1(config-vlan)#name HR

Police-SW1(config)#vlan 47
Police-SW1(config-vlan)#name records

Police-SW1(config)#vlan 101
Police-SW1(config-vlan)#name comm

On Police-SW2

Police-SW2(config)#vlan 45
Police-SW2(config-vlan)#name HR

Police-SW2(config)#vlan 47
Police-SW2(config-vlan)#name records

Police-SW2(config)#vlan 101
Police-SW2(config-vlan)#name comm

  • Configure the appropriate ports that link the switches and Police with the router as functioning trunk ports.

Police-SW1(config)#int g1/1
Police-SW1(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
Police-SW1(config-if)#no shutdown

Police-SW1(config)#int g1/2
Police-SW1(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
Police-SW1(config-if)#no shutdown

Police-SW2(config)#int g1/1
Police-SW2(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
Police-SW2(config-if)#no shutdown

  • Assign the switch ports shown in the table as access ports in the VLANs as indicated in the VLAN Table.

Police-SW1(config)#int fa0/10
Police-SW1(config-if)#switchport mode access
Police-SW1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 45
Police-SW1(config-if)#exit

Police-SW1(config)#int fa0/15
Police-SW1(config-if)#switchport mode access
Police-SW1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 47
Police-SW1(config-if)#exit

Police-SW2(config)#int fa0/3
Police-SW2(config-if)#switchport mode access
Police-SW2(config-if)#switchport access vlan 45
Police-SW2(config-if)#exit

Police-SW2(config)#int fa0/21
Police-SW2(config-if)#switchport mode access
Police-SW2(config-if)#switchport access vlan 47
Police-SW2(config-if)#exit

  • Address VLAN 101 on the network indicated in the VLAN Table. Note that the first address in this network will be assigned to the router in a later step in this assessment. The management interfaces of both switches should configured to be reachable by hosts on other networks.

Police-SW1(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.101.1
Police-SW1(config)#interface vlan 101
Police-SW1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.101.2 255.255.255.0

Police-SW2(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.101.1
Police-SW2(config)#interface vlan 101
Police-SW2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.101.3 255.255.255.0

  • Configure all unused switch ports as access ports, and shutdown the unused ports.

Police-SW1(config)#int range fa0/1-9, fa0/11-14, fa0/16-24
Police-SW1(config-if-range)#switchport mode access 
Police-SW1(config-if-range)#shutdown

Police-SW2(config)#int range fa0/1-2, fa0/4-20, fa0/22-24
Police-SW2(config-if-range)#switchport mode access 
Police-SW2(config-if-range)#shutdown

Step 8: Configure DHCP

Police should be configured as a DHCP server that provides addressing to the hosts attached to Police-SW1 and Police-SW2. The requirements are as follows:

  • Use VLAN45 and VLAN47 as the pool names. Note that the pool names must match the names given here exactly, all capital letters and exact spelling.
  • Addresses .1 to .20 should be reserved for static assignment from each pool.
  • The first address in each network will be assigned to the router interface attached to the networks as shown in the addressing table.
  • Use a DNS server address of 192.168.18.100. This server has not yet been added to the network, but the address must be configured.
  • Ensure that hosts in each LAN are able to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

PoliceDept(config)#ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.45.1 192.168.45.20
PoliceDept(config)#ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.47.1 192.168.47.20

PoliceDept(config)#ip dhcp pool VLAN45
PoliceDept(dhcp-config)#network 192.168.45.0 255.255.255.0
PoliceDept(dhcp-config)#default-router 192.168.45.1
PoliceDept(dhcp-config)#dns-server 192.168.18.100

PoliceDept(config)#ip dhcp pool VLAN47
PoliceDept(dhcp-config)#network 192.168.47.0 255.255.255.0
PoliceDept(dhcp-config)#default-router 192.168.47.1
PoliceDept(dhcp-config)#dns-server 192.168.18.100

*Set Clients to DHCP*

PC1, PC2, PC3, PC4

Step 9: Configure NAT

Configure NAT to translate internal private addresses into public addresses for the Internet. The requirements are:

a. Configure static NAT to the Town Server.

  • Translate the internal address of the server to the address 198.51.100.14.
  • Configure the correct interfaces to perform this NAT translation.

Central(config)#ip nat inside source static 192.168.18.46 198.51.100.14
Central(config)#interface g0/0
Central(config-if)#ip nat inside

Central(config)#interface s0/1/0
Central(config-if)#ip nat outside

b.Configure dynamic NAT (not NAT with overload, or PAT).

  • Use the addresses remaining in the public address subnet of 198.51.100.0/28. The first two addresses in the subnet have already been assigned to the Central and ISP serial interfaces. Also, another address has already been used in the static mapping in the step above.
  • Use a pool name of INTERNET. Note that the pool name must match this name exactly, in spelling and capitalization.
  • Hosts on each of the internal LANs shown in the topology and on all of the branch networks should be permitted to use the NAT addresses to access the Internet.
  • Use a source list number of 1.
  • Your source list should consist of three entries, one each for the LANs and one for the branch networks.

BY Boogie

ip nat pool INTERNET 198.51.100.3 198.51.100.13 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool INTERNET
ip nat inside source static 192.168.18.46 198.51.100.14
ip access-list standard 1
permit 192.168.45.0 0.0.0.255
permit 192.168.47.0 0.0.0.255
permit 192.168.200.0 0.0.3.255

Step 10: Configure Access Control Lists

You will configure two access control lists to limit device access on Central. You should use the any and host keywords in the ACL statements as required.  The ACL requirements are:

a. Restrict access to the vty lines on Central:

  • Create a named standard ACL using the name MANAGE. Be sure that you use this name exactly as it appears in these instructions (case and spelling).
  • Allow only the  NetAdmin Host to access the vty lines of Central.
  • No other Internet hosts (including Internet hosts not visible in the topology) should be able to access the vty lines of Central.
  • Your solution should consist of a single ACL statement.

b.Allow outside access to the Town Server while controlling other traffic from the outside. Create the ACL as directed below:

  • Use access list number 101.
  • First, allow NetAdmin Host full access to all network hosts and devices.
  • Then, allow outside hosts to access the Town Server over HTTP only.
  • Allow traffic that is in response to data requests from the internal and School Network hosts to enter the network.
  • Add a statement so that counts of all denied traffic will be shown in the show access-lists command output.
  • Your ACL should have only four statements.

Your ACL should be placed in the most efficient location possible to conserve network bandwidth and device processing resources.

Step 11: Configure Router-on-a-Stick Inter-VLAN Routing.

Configure Police to provide routing between the VLANs configured on the switches. As follows:

  • Use the VLAN numbers for the required interface numbers.
  • Use the first addresses in the VLAN networks for the interfaces.

PoliceDept(config)# interface g0/0
PoliceDept(config-if)#no sh

PoliceDept(config)# interface g0/0.45
PoliceDept(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1Q 45
PoliceDept(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.45.1 255.255.255.0

PoliceDept(config)# interface g0/0.47
PoliceDept(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1Q 47
PoliceDept(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.47.1 255.255.255.0

PoliceDept(config)# interface g0/0.101
PoliceDept(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1Q 101
PoliceDept(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.101.1 255.255.255.0

Step 12: Test and Troubleshoot Connectivity.

Ensure that the hosts attached to the VLANs can reach hosts on the School Network and the Internet.

——————————————————————————-

BY Asyriel

Here is a script you can copy and paste. Copy to Wordpad first. Scored a 94% with these exact commands. Adjust port ranges if you want that 100% haha

[[Site1]]
enable
conf t
hostname Site-1
enable secret cisco
line con 0
logging synchronous
password cisco
login
exit
line vty 0 15
login
exit
service password-encryption
banner motd “Warning!”
int s0/0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.10.105 255.255.255.252
description [Police and Central]
clock rate 128000
no shutdown
exit
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

[[HQ]]
enable
conf t
interface Serial0/0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.10.106 255.255.255.252
no shutdown
exit
interface Serial0/0/1
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.10.114 255.255.255.252
clock rate 128000
no shutdown
exit
interface g0/0
ip address 192.168.18.41 255.255.255.248
no shutdown
exit
interface Serial0/1/0
ip address 198.51.100.1 255.255.255.240
no shutdown
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
ip route 192.168.200.0 255.255.252.0 s0/0/1

[[Site2]]
enable
conf t
interface Serial0/0/1
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.10.113 255.255.255.252
no shutdown
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
ip route 192.168.200.0 255.255.252.0 s0/0/0

[[Site1]]
router ospf 10
router-id 1.1.1.1
network 192.168.10.104 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.45.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
network 192.168.47.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
network 192.168.101.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface g0/0.45
passive-interface g0/0.47
passive-interface g0/0.101
exit
interface s0/0/0
bandwidth 128
ip ospf cost 7500
exit

[[HQ]]
router ospf 10
router-id 2.2.2.2
network 192.168.10.104 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.112 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.18.40 0.0.0.7 area 0
passive-interface g0/0
exit
interface s0/0/0
bandwidth 128
ip ospf cost 7500
exit
interface s0/0/1
bandwidth 128
exit

[[Site2]]
router ospf 10
router-id 3.3.3.3
network 192.168.10.112 0.0.0.3 area 0
exit
interface s0/0/1
bandwidth 128
exit

[[SW1]]
enable
conf t
vlan 45
name finance
exit
vlan 47
name sales
exit
vlan 101
name netadmin
exit
int g1/1
switchport mode trunk
no shutdown
exit
int g1/2
switchport mode trunk
no shutdown
exit
int fa0/10
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 45
exit
int fa0/15
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 47
exit
ip default-gateway 192.168.101.1
interface vlan 101
ip address 192.168.101.2 255.255.255.0
exit
int range fa0/1-9, fa0/11-14, fa0/16-24
switchport mode access
shutdown
exit

[[SW2]]
enable
conf t
vlan 45
Police-SW2(config-vlan)#name HR
exit
vlan 47
Police-SW2(config-vlan)#name records
exit
vlan 101
Police-SW2(config-vlan)#name comm
exit
int g1/1
switchport mode trunk
no shutdown
exit
int fa0/3
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 45
exit
int fa0/21
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 47
exit
ip default-gateway 192.168.101.1
interface vlan 101
ip address 192.168.101.3 255.255.255.0
exit
int range fa0/1-2, fa0/4-20, fa0/22-24
switchport mode access
shutdown
exit

[[Site1]]
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.45.1 192.168.45.20
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.47.1 192.168.47.20
ip dhcp pool VLAN45
network 192.168.45.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 192.168.45.1
dns-server 192.168.18.100
exit
ip dhcp pool VLAN47
network 192.168.47.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 192.168.47.1
dns-server 192.168.18.100
exit

*****SET CLIENTS TO DHCP*****

[[HQ]]
ip nat inside source static 192.168.18.46 198.51.100.14
interface g0/0
ip nat inside
exit
interface s0/1/0
ip nat outside
exit
ip nat pool INTERNET 198.51.100.3 198.51.100.13 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool INTERNET
ip nat inside source static 192.168.18.46 198.51.100.14
ip access-list standard 1
permit 192.168.45.0 0.0.0.255
permit 192.168.47.0 0.0.0.255
permit 192.168.200.0 0.0.3.255
exit
interface Serial0/1/0
ip access-group 101 in
exit
access-list 1 permit 192.168.45.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 1 permit 192.168.47.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 1 permit 192.168.200.0 0.0.3.255
ip access-list standard MANAGE
permit host 203.0.113.18
exit
access-list 101 permit ip host 203.0.113.18 any
access-list 101 permit tcp any host 198.51.100.14 eq www
access-list 101 permit tcp any any established
access-list 101 deny ip any any
line vty 0 15
access-class MANAGE in
password cisco
login
exit

[[Site1]]
interface g0/0
no sh
exit
interface g0/0.45
encapsulation dot1Q 45
ip address 192.168.45.1 255.255.255.0
exit
interface g0/0.47
encapsulation dot1Q 47
ip address 192.168.47.1 255.255.255.0
exit
interface g0/0.101
encapsulation dot1Q 101
ip address 192.168.101.1 255.255.255.0
exit

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Practice Final Exam Answers

1. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.

It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.

It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.

It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.*

 

2. Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information?

Destination address: 255.255.255.255
Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0
Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0
Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0

DHCPACK

DHCPDISCOVER*

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST

 

3. Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet.

The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.*

The default-router and dns-server commands need to be configured with subnet masks.​

The IP address of the DNS server is not contained in the excluded address list.​

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.*

The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

 

5. Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

The NAT pool has been exhausted.*

The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.

Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.

 

6. What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?

Host IPv4 addressing is complicated.

End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost.*

The flexibility of connections to the Internet is reduced.

The security of the communication is negatively impacted.

 

7. A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

an IPv4 address pool

an ACL to identify the local IPv4 address of the web server

the keyword overload for the ip nat inside source command

the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses*

 

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

Address translation is working.*

Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.

The name of the NAT pool is refCount.

A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.*

Two types of NAT are enabled.*

One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

 

9. Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

destination address and wildcard mask

source address and wildcard mask*

subnet mask and wildcard mask

access list number between 100 and 199

access list number between 1 and 99*

 

10. Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

most

host*

all

any*

some

gt

 

11. What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.*

The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.*

The last five bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

 

12. An administrator created and applied an outbound Telnet extended ACL on a router to prevent router-initiated Telnet sessions. What is a consequence of this configuration?

The ACL will not work as desired because an outbound ACL cannot block router-initiated traffic.*

The ACL will work as desired as long as it is applied to the correct interface.

The ACL will not work because only standard ACLs can be applied to vty lines.​

The ACL will work as long as it will be applied to all vty lines.​

 

13. A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

only a standard ACL

a standard or extended ACL

only an extended ACL

an extended, named, or numbered ACL

only a named ACL*

 

14. A college student is studying for the Cisco CCENT certification and is visualizing extended access lists. Which three keywords could immediately follow the keywords permit or deny as part of an extended access list? (Choose three.)

www

tcp*

udp*

icmp*

telnet

ftp

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. The student on the H1 computer continues to launch an extended ping with expanded packets at the student on the H2 computer. The school network administrator wants to stop this behavior, but still allow both students access to web-based computer assignments. What would be the best plan for the network administrator?

Apply an outbound extended ACL on R1 S0/0/1.

Apply an outbound standard ACL on R2 S0/0/1.

Apply an inbound standard ACL on R1 Gi0/0.

Apply an inbound extended ACL on R2 Gi0/1.

Apply an inbound extended ACL on R1 Gi0/0.*

 

16. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.

They only send out updates when a new network is added.

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*

They flood the entire network with routing updates.

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10*

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

 

18. What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?

easier to implement

more secure in controlling routing updates

fewer router resource overhead requirements

ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable*​

 

19. In a routing table which route can never be an ultimate route?

parent route*

child route

level one route

level two route

 

20. What is meant by the term “best match” when applied to the routing table lookup process?

network match

supernet match

exact match

longest match*

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. In the routing table entry, what is the administrative distance?

24

120*

2

12

 

22. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.*

Configuration of static routes is error-free.

Static routes scale well as the network grows.

Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.*

The path a static route uses to send data is known.*

No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.

 

23. Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?

summary static route

default static route

floating static route*

standard static route

 

24. How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

It will not perform recursive lookups.

Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.*

Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary.

 

25. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.

Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.*

Add an administrative distance of 254.

 

26. How many classful networks are summarized by the static summary route ip route 192.168.32.0 255.255.248.0 S0/0/0?

2

4

8*

16

 

27. A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that are reachable over a TCP session

routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol*

routers that reside in the same area

routers that exchange LSAs

 

28. What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

low processor overhead

poison reverse

routing loops

split horizon

shortest-path first calculations*

 

29. How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface

the lowest MAC address on an active interface

the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*

the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface

 

30. An administrator attempts to change the router ID on a router that is running OSPFv3 by changing the IPv4 address on the router loopback interface. Once the IPv4 address is changed, the administrator notes that the router ID did not change. What two actions can the administrator take so that the router will use the new IPv4 address as the router ID? (Choose two.)

Shut down and re-enable the loopback interface.

Reboot the router.*

Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.

Clear the IPv6 OSPF process.*

Disable and re-enable IPv4 routing.

 

31. Refer to the exhibit. Which would be chosen as the router ID of R2?

2001:DB8:CAFE:2::/64

LLA: FE80::2

2001:DB8:CAFE:A001::/64

The router ID has to be manually configured.*

 

32. What does an OSPF area contain?

routers that share the same router ID

routers whose SPF trees are identical

routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs*

routers that share the same process ID

 

33. What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?

The interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1 will be a passive interface.

OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.*

This command will have no effect because it uses a quad zero wildcard mask.

OSPF advertisements will include the specific IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.

 

34. What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?

Hello, LSAck, LSU, LSR, DBD

LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSU, LSR

Hello, DBD, LSR, LSU, LSAck*

LSU, LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSR

 

35. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

FF02::5

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2

2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2

FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538*

 

36. Refer to the exhibit. What address will be used as the router ID for the OSPFv3 process?

1.1.1.1

10.1.1.1*

192.168.1.1

2001:DB8:CAFE:1::1

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::1

 

37. Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?

fragment-free

fast-forward

integrity-checking

store-and-forward*

 

38. Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

a collapsed core network design*

a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

 

39. When does a switch use frame filtering?

The destination MAC address is for a host on a different network segment from the source of the traffic.

The destination MAC address is for a host on the same network segment as the source of the traffic.*

The destination MAC address is for a host with no entry in the MAC address table.

The destination MAC address is for a host on a network supported by a different router.

 

40. Which command will verify the status of both the physical and the virtual interfaces on a switch?

show running-config

show ip interface brief*

show startup-config

show vlan​

 

41. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating a lag in network performance and issues the show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based on the output that is displayed, what two items should the administrator check next? (Choose two.)

cable lengths*

damaged cable termination

duplex settings*

electrical interference

incorrect cable types

 

42. Which command would be best to use on an unused switch port if a company adheres to the best practices as recommended by Cisco?

shutdown*

ip dhcp snooping

switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport port-security violation shutdown

switchport port-security mac-address sticky mac-address

 

43.

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which ping command completed successfully?

ping 192.168.25.7

ping 192.168.25.8

ping 192.168.25.9*

ping 192.168.25.10

 

44. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*

S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable

S1(config-if)# switchport mode access

S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

 

45. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.

Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*

Configure SSH for remote management.*

Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”

Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

 

46. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

It identifies the subinterface.

It identifies the VLAN number.*

It identifies the native VLAN number.

It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.

 

47. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

 

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252*

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# ip routing*

 

48. Fill in the blank.

Using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing, how many subinterfaces have to be configured to support 10 VLANs?​

10

 

49. Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?

The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.

The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.*

The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​

The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​

 

50. When routing a large number of VLANs, what are two disadvantages of using the router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing method rather than the multilayer switch inter-VLAN routing method? (Choose two.)

Multiple SVIs are needed.

A dedicated router is required.*

Router-on-a-stick requires subinterfaces to be configured on the same subnets.

Router-on-a-stick requires multiple physical interfaces on a router.

Multiple subinterfaces may impact the traffic flow speed.*

 

51. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

The interface vlan <vlan number> command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.

They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.

They are used for point-to-multipoint links.

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*

 

52. Fill in the blank.

Do not use abbreviations.

The   duplex full   command configures a switch port to operate in the full-duplex mode.

 

53. Order the DHCP process steps. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
Step 3
– target left blank –
Step 4
Step 2
Step 1

54. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
full operating system -> flash
limited operating system -> ROM
routing table -> RAM
startup configuration file -> NVRAM

55. Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
hierarchical
modularity
resiliency
– not scored –
flexibility

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 11 Exam Answers

1. Typically, which network device would be used to perform NAT for a corporate environment?

DHCP server

host device

router*

server

switch

 

2. What is the group of public IPv4 addresses used on a NAT-enabled router known as?

outside local addresses

inside local addresses

inside global addresses*

outside global addresses

 

3. When NAT is employed in a small office, which address type is typically used for hosts on the local LAN?

private IP addresses*

global public IP addresses

Internet-routable addresses

both private and public IP addresses

 

4. Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to simultaneously use a single inside global address for connecting to the Internet?

PAT*

static NAT

dynamic NAT

port forwarding

 

5. Which type of NAT maps a single inside local address to a single inside global address?

dynamic

static*

port address translation

overloading

 

6. Several key servers in an organization must be directly accessible from the Internet. What addressing policy should be implemented for these servers?

Use dynamic NAT to provide addresses for the servers.

Place all of the servers in their own Class C private subnet.

Use DHCP to assign addresses from the pool of Class B addresses.

Assign static internal addresses and public external addresses to each of the servers.*

 

7. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing.*

The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​

 

8. Refer to the exhibit. What has to be done in order to complete the static NAT configuration on R1?

R1 should be configured with the command ip nat inside source static 209.165.200.1 192.168.11.11.

R1 should be configured with the command ip nat inside source static 209.165.200.200 192.168.11.11.

Interface S0/0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside.*

Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command no ip nat inside.

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?

Access-list 1 is misconfigured.

NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.*

Interface Fa0/0 should be identified as an outside NAT interface.

The NAT pool is incorrect.

 

10. Which statement accurately describes dynamic NAT?

It always maps a private IP address to a public IP address.

It provides an automated mapping of inside local to inside global IP addresses.*

It provides a mapping of internal host names to IP addresses.

It dynamically provides IP addressing to internal hosts.

 

11. A network administrator configures the border router with the command R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp. What is required to be configured in order for this particular command to be functional?

a NAT pool named corp that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses*

an access list named corp that defines the private addresses that are affected by NAT

an access list numbered 4 that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses

ip nat outside to be enabled on the interface that connects to the LAN affected by the NAT

a VLAN named corp to be enabled and active and routed by R1

 

12. When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?

No users can access the server.

The request to the server for the seventh user fails.*

All users can access the server.

The first user gets disconnected when the seventh user makes the request.

 

13. A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?

The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.*

The company needs to have more public IP addresses available to be used on the Internet.

The company router must throttle or buffer traffic because the processing power of the router is not enough to handle the normal load of external-bound Internet traffic.

The company has a small number of servers that should be accessible by clients from the Internet.

 

14. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of entering the command that is shown in the exhibit on R2 as part of the dynamic NAT configuration?

It will define a pool of addresses for translation.

It will identify an inside NAT interface.

It will bind NAT-POOL1 with ACL 1.*

It will define the source ACL for the external interface.

 

15. Which configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload*

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.0.2.1 192.0.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.0.2.1 192.0.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.0.2.1 192.0.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload
ip nat inside source static 10.0.0.5 209.165.200.225

 

16. What are two required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)

Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.*

Define a standard access list denying the addresses that should be translated.

Define the range of ports to be used.

Identify the inside interface.*

Define a standard access list that allow the outside global addresses to be used.

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated*

defines which addresses are allowed into the router

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

 

18. What is the purpose of port forwarding?

Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.*

Port forwarding allows users to reach servers on the Internet that are not using standard port numbers.

Port forwarding allows an internal user to reach a service on a public IPv4 address that is located outside a LAN.

Port forwarding allows for translating inside local IP addresses to outside local addresses.

 

19. What is a characteristic of unique local addresses?

They allow sites to be combined without creating any address conflicts.*

They are designed to improve the security of IPv6 networks.

Their implementation depends on ISPs providing the service.

They are defined in RFC 3927.

 

20. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses

PAT using an external interface*

static NAT with one entry

static NAT with a NAT pool

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT configuration applied to the router is as follows:

ERtr(config)# access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ERtr(config)# ip nat pool corp 209.165.201.6 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
ERtr(config)# ip nat inside source list 1 pool corp overload
ERtr(config)# ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.55 209.165.201.4
ERtr(config)# interface gigabitethernet 0/0
ERtr(config-if)# ip nat inside
ERtr(config-if)# interface serial 0/0/0
ERtr(config-if)# ip nat outside

Based on the configuration and the output shown, what can be determined about the NAT status within the organization?

NAT is working.

Static NAT is working, but dynamic NAT is not.

Dynamic NAT is working, but static NAT is not.

Not enough information is given to determine if both static and dynamic NAT are working.*

 

22. Match the steps with the actions that are involved when an internal host with IP address 192.168.10.10 attempts to send a packet to an external server at the IP address 209.165.200.254 across a router R1 that is running dynamic NAT. (Not all option are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
step 5 => R1 replaces the address 192.168.10.10 with a translated inside global address.
step 2 => R1 checks the NAT configuration to determine if this packet should be translated.
step 4 => R1 selects an available global address from the dynamic address pool.
step 1 => The cost sends packets that request a connection to the server at the address 209.165.200.254
step 3 => If there is no translation entry for this IP address, R1 determines that the source address 192.168.10.10 must be translated.

 

23.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What problem is causing PC-A to be unable to communicate with the Internet?

The static route should not reference the interface, but the outside address instead.

This router should be configured to use static NAT instead of PAT.

The ip nat inside source command refers to the wrong interface.

The access list used in the NAT process is referencing the wrong subnet.

The NAT interfaces are not correctly assigned.*

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 10 Exam Answers

1. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

unicast DHCPACK

broadcast DHCPACK

unicast DHCPREQUEST

broadcast DHCPREQUEST*

 

2. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255*

both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server

MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server

 

3. Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?

manual allocation

pre-allocation

automatic allocation

dynamic allocation*

 

4. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased*

to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

for hosts on other subnets to receive the information

for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

 

5. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10*
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1*

dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

 

6. An administrator issues the commands:

Router(config)# interface g0/1
Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp

What is the administrator trying to achieve?

configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server*

configuring the router to act as a relay agent

configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

 

7. Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)

The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.*

The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.

The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.

This is an ISP requirement.*

The router has a fixed IP address.

 

8. A network engineer is troubleshooting hosts on a LAN that are not being assigned an IPv4 address from a DHCP server after a new Ethernet switch has been installed on the LAN. The configuration of the DHCP server has been confirmed as correct and the clients have network connectivity to other networks if a static IP address is configured on each one. What step should the engineer take next to solve the issue?

Issue the ipconfig/release command on each client.

Issue the show ip dhcp binding command on the switch.

Confirm that ports on the Layer 2 LAN switch are configured as edge ports.*

Issue the show interface command on the router to confirm that the LAN gateway is operational.

 

9. A host on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN is not being assigned an IPv4 address by an enterprise DHCP server with the address 10.10.200.10/24. What is the best way for the network engineer to resolve this problem?

Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.*

Issue the command default-router 10.10.200.10 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.100.0 on the router interface that is the 10.10.200.0/24 gateway.

Issue the command network 10.10.200.0 255.255.255.0 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

 

10. A company uses the method SLAAC to configure IPv6 addresses for the workstations of the employees. A network administrator configured the IPv6 address on the LAN interface of the router. The interface status is UP. However, the workstations on the LAN segment did not obtain the correct prefix and prefix length. What else should be configured on the router that is attached to the LAN segment for the workstations to obtain the information?​

R1(config-if)# ipv6 enable

R1(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing*

R1(config-if)# ipv6 nd other-config-flag

R1(config)# ipv6 dhcp pool <name of the pool>

 

11. A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?​

the all-routers multicast address

the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network*

the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network

the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network

 

12. A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.

It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.

It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.*

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique.

 

13. A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?

DHCPv6 SOLICIT

DHCPv6 REQUEST

DHCPv6 ADVERTISE

DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST*

 

14. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

SLAAC

stateless DHCPv6*

stateful DHCPv6

RA and EUI-64

 

15. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?

ARPv6

DHCPv6

ICMPv6*

UDP

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?

SLAAC

stateful DHCPv6

stateless DHCPv6*

static link-local

 

17. A network administrator is implementing DHCPv6 for the company. The administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 1 by using the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag. What effect will this configuration have on the operation of the clients?

Clients must use the information that is contained in RA messages.

Clients must use all configuration information that is provided by a DHCPv6 server.*

Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by a DHCPv6 server and generate a random interface ID.

Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by RA messages and obtain additional information from a DHCPv6 server.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?

Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.*

Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1.

Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag.

Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server.

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?

No virtual link-local address is configured.

The Duplicate Address Detection feature is disabled.

The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation.

The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

 

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated.

The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation.*

The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.

The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0.

 

21. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.

Type a command to exclude the first fifteen useable IP addresses from a DHCPv4 address pool of the network 10.0.15.0/24.

Router(config)# ip dhcp  excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15*

22. Order the steps of configuring a router as a DHCPv4 server. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
[+] Step 2  -> Configure a DHCP pool.
[+] Step 1  -> Exclude IP addresses.
– not scored –
[+] Step 3  ->Define the default gateway router
– not scored –

23. Match the descriptions to the corresponding DHCPv6 server type. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

Stateless DHCPv6
[+] enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command
[+] clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server
[+] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command

Stateful DHCPv6
[#] the M flag is set to 1 in RA messages
[#] uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients
[#] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address dhcp command

24.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

How many IP addresses has the DHCP server leased and what is the number of DHCP pools configured? (Choose two.)

three leases*

six pools

five leases

one pool*

two pools

seven leases

CCNA 2 v5.02 RSE Chapter 9 Exam Answers

1. What two functions describe uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)

ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.

Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.

ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.*

ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.

ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.*

 

2. Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)

Both kinds of ACLs can filter based on protocol type.

Both can permit or deny specific services by port number.

Both include an implicit deny as a final ACE.*

Both filter packets for a specific destination host IP address.

Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.*

 

3. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

ey are configured in the interface configuration mode.

They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.*

They can be created with a number but not with a name.

They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

 

4. A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23*

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0*

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

 

5. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?

172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255

172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254

172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255*

172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255

 

6. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?

4

6

8*

12

16

 

7. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)

Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.

Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.

Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.*

Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.*

Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.*

For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.

 

8. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

 

9. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in*

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)

access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 permit ip any any

access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21

access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit ip any any**

R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in

R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out**

R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

 

11. Consider the following access list that allows IP phone configuration file transfers from a particular host to a TFTP server:

R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

Which method would allow the network administrator to modify the ACL and include FTP transfers from any source IP address?

R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21

R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# no access-list 105
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out*

R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any

 

12. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?

In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.

Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.

Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.*

On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.

 

13. Which feature is unique to IPv6 ACLs when compared to those of IPv4 ACLs?

the use of wildcard masks

an implicit deny any any ACE

the use of named ACL entries

an implicit permit of neighbor discovery packets*

 

14. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.*

A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.*

A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE.

A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default.

Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.*

Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

 

15. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

deny ip any any

deny ipv6 any any*

permit ipv6 any any

deny icmp any any

permit icmp any any nd-ns*

permit icmp any any nd-na*

 

16. What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?

named standard

named extended*

numbered standard

numbered extended

 

17. Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25*

permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 25

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 23

permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 23

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

HTTPS packets to PC1

ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1*

packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80

neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

 

19. Match each statement with the example subnet and wildcard that it describes. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

192.168.15.65 255.255.255.240 ==> the first valid host address in a subnet
192.168.15.144 0.0.0.15 ==> subnetwork address of a subnet with 14 valid host addreses
host 192.168.15.2 ==> all IP address bits must match exactly
192.168.5.0 0.0.3.255 ==> hosts in a subnet with SM 255.255.252.0
192.168.3.64 0.0.0.7 ==> address with a subnet 255.255.255.248

20.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Why is the ACL not working?

The interface has not been enabled.

The ACL is applied in the wrong direction.

The ACL is missing a deny ip any any ACE.

The ACL is applied to the wrong interface.*

The access-list 105 command or commands are incorrect.

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2017