CCNA3 v6.0 Chapter 6 Exam Answers

1. When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?

bounded updates

partial updates

EIGRP authentication*

Diffusing Update Algorithm

Reliable Transport Protocol

2. What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?

to describe different routing processes

to identify different application layer protocols

to use different transport protocols for different packets

to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols*

3. If all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured with the default EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default to receive an EIGRP packet from its neighbor before declaring the neighbor unreachable?

10 seconds

15 seconds*

20 seconds

30 seconds

4. Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?

EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.

EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.

EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.

EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.*

5. Which two EIGRP packet types are sent with unreliable delivery? (Choose two.)

update

query

hello*

reply

acknowledgment*

6. Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?

01-00-5E-00-00-09

01-00-5E-00-00-10

01-00-5E-00-00-0A*

01-00-5E-00-00-0B

7. What is identified within the opcode of an EIGRP packet header?

the EIGRP message type that is being sent or received from a neighbor*

the EIGRP autonomous system metrics

the EIGRP hold timer agreed upon with a neighbor

the EIGRP sum of delays from source to destination

8. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100 used for?

as the autonomous system number*

as the number of neighbors supported by this router

as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor

as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router

9. Why would a network administrator use a wildcard mask in the network command when configuring a router to use EIGRP?

to lower the router overhead

to send a manual summarization

to exclude some interfaces from the EIGRP process*

to subnet at the time of the configuration

10. What information does EIGRP maintain within the routing table?

both successors and feasible successors

only feasible successors

adjacent neighbors

all routes known to the router

only successors*

11. Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?

the routing table

the neighbor table

the topology table*

the adjacency table

12. Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?

bandwidth 1500

shutdown
no shutdown

copy running-config startup-config
reload

no bandwidth*

13. Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose three.)

k1

k2*

k3

k4*

k5*

k6

14. A new network administrator has been asked to verify the metrics that are used by EIGRP on a Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using static values on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

bandwidth*

load

reliability

delay*

MTU

15. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose two.)

192.168.71.0*

192.168.51.0

10.44.100.252*

10.44.104.253

10.44.101.252

16. A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?

show ip protocols

show running-config

show interfaces*

show ip route

17. Refer to the exhibit.

R3 has two possible paths to the 172.16.99.0 network. What is the reported distance of the feasible successor route?

2340608

2169856

10512128

2816*

18. Refer to the exhibit.

R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4 network. What would make the alternate route meet the feasibility condition?

a reported distance less than 3523840*

a reported distance greater than 41024000

a feasible distance greater than 41024000

an administrative distance less than 170

19. Which two factors does an EIGRP router use to determine that a route to a remote network meets the feasible condition and is therefore loop-free? (Choose two.)

the successor route on a neighbor router

the feasible successor route on the remote router

the reported distance on a neighbor router*

the administrative distance on the remote router

the feasible distance on the local router*

20. Which configuration is necessary to ensure successful operation of EIGRP for IPv6?

The eigrp router-id command requires an IPv6 address within the router configuration mode.​

The network command is required within the router configuration mode.​

The no shutdown command is required within the router configuration mode.​*

The router eigrp autonomous-system command is required within the router configuration mode.

21. Fill in the Blank. Use the abbreviation.

EIGRP uses the protocol “RTP” to deliver EIGRP packets to neighbors.​

22. Fill in the blank.

In an EIGRP topology table, a route that is in a/an “active” state will cause the Diffusing Update Algorithm to send EIGRP queries that ask other routers for a path to this network.

23. Order the precedence in which an EIGRP router would choose the router ID. (Not all options are used.)

eigrp router-id command = first

highest IPv4 address on active physical interfaces = third

highest IPv4 address on loopback interfaces = second

24. Match the correct version of EIGRP with the EIGRP features. (Not all options are used.)

source address for EIGRP messages is a routable address = EIGRP for IPv4 only

uses a 32-bit router ID = both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6

source address for EIGRP messages is a link-local address = EIGRP for IPv6 only

25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which code is displayed on the web server?

Done

EIGRP

Complete*

IPv6EIGRP

CCNA3 v6.0 Chapter 5 Exam Answers

1. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed as an exterior gateway protocol to interconnect different Internet providers?

BGP*

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP

2. In the context of routing protocols, what is a definition for time to convergence?

the amount of time a network administrator needs to configure a routing protocol in a small- to medium-sized network

the capability to transport data, video, and voice over the same media*

a measure of protocol configuration complexity

the amount of time for the routing tables to achieve a consistent state after a topology change

3. An OSPF enabled router is processing learned routes to select best paths to reach a destination network. What is the OSPF algorithm evaluating as the metric?

The amount of packet delivery time and slowest bandwidth.

The number of hops along the routing path.

The amount of traffic and probability of failure of links.

The cumulative bandwidth that is used along the routing path.*

4. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?

Exterior routing protocols are used only by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.

Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.

Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.

Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.*

5. What are two purposes of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

provide a default route to network hosts

discover remote networks*

provide network security

reduce network traffic

select best path to destination networks*

6. Which routing protocol is designed to use areas to scale large hierarchical networks?

RIP

EIGRP

OSPF*

BGP

7. Which two routing protocols are classified as distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)

OSPF

EIGRP*

BGP

IS-IS

RIP*

8. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured RIPv2 in the given topology. Which path would a packet take to get from the LAN that is connected to R1 to the LAN that is connected to R7?

R1–R3–R4–R5–R6–R7

R1–R3–R2–R6–R7

R1–R3–R2–R6–R7

R1–R2–R6–R7*

9. Which routing protocol sends a routing update to neighboring routers every 30 seconds?

RIP*

EIGRP

OSPF

BGP

10. After a network topology change occurs, which distance vector routing protocol can send an update message directly to a single neighboring router without unnecessarily notifying other routers?

IS-IS

RIPv2

EIGRP*

OSPF

RIPv1

11. Which feature provides secure routing updates between RIPv2 neighbors?

unicast updates

routing protocol authentication*

keepalive messages

adjacency table

12. What is maintained within an EIGRP topology table?

all routes received from neighbors*

the hop count to all networks

the area ID of all neighbors

the state of all links on the network

13. A network administrator is researching routing protocols for implementation in a critical network infrastructure. Which protocol uses the DUAL algorithm to provide almost instantaneous convergence during a route failover?

EIGRP*

RIP

OSPF

BGP

14. Refer to the exhibit.

OSPF is used in the network. Which path will be chosen by OSPF to send data packets from Net A to Net B?

R1, R2, R5, R7

R1, R3, R5, R7*

R1, R3, R6, R7

R1, R4, R6, R7

R1, R3, R5, R6, R7

15. What are two features of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)

automatically summarizes networks at the classful boundaries

has an administrative distance of 100

calculates its metric using bandwidth*

uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to build the SPF tree*

used primarily as an EGP

16. Which two protocols are link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

RIP

OSPF*

EIGRP

BGP

IS-IS*

IGP

17. Which routing protocol uses link-state information to build a map of the topology for computing the best path to each destination network?

OSPF*

EIGRP

RIP

RIPng

18. Which two requirements are necessary before a router configured with a link-state routing protocol can build and send its link-state packets? (Choose two.)

The router has determined the costs associated with its active links.*

The router has built its link-state database.

The routing table has been refreshed.

The router has established its adjacencies.*

The router has constructed an SPF tree.

19. What happens when two link-state routers stop receiving hello packets from neighbors?

They continue to operate as normal and are able to exchange packets.

They consider the neighbor to be unreachable and the adjacency is broken.*

They create a default route to the adjacent router.

They will flood their database tables to each other.

20. Which two events will trigger the sending of a link-state packet by a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

the router update timer expiring

a link to a neighbor router has become congested

a change in the topology*

the initial startup of the routing protocol process*

the requirement to periodically flood link-state packets to all neighbors

21. What is the first step taken by a newly configured OSPF router in the process of reaching a state of convergence?

It builds the topological database.

It floods LSP packets to neighboring routers.

It learns about directly connected links in an active state.*

It exchanges hello messages with a neighboring router.

22. Which two components of an LSP enable an OSPF router to determine if the LSP that is received contains newer information than what is in the current OSPF router link-state database? (Choose two.)

query

sequence numbers*

acknowledgements

hellos

aging information*

23. Which statement is an incorrect description of the OSPF protocol?

Multiarea OSPF helps reduce the size of the link-state database.

OSPF builds a topological map of the network.

When compared with distance vector routing protocols, OSPF utilizes less memory and less CPU processing power.*

OSPF has fast convergence.

24. What is a disadvantage of deploying OSPF in a large single area routing environment?

OSPF uses multicast updates.

OSPF uses excessive LSP flooding.*

OSPF uses a topology database of alternate routes.

OSPF uses a metric of bandwidth and delay.

25. Match the features of link-state routing protocols to their advantages and disadvantages. (Not all options are used.)

Advantage

event-driven updates

building a topological map

fast convergence

Disadvantage

bandwidth consumption

memory usage

CPU processing time

CCNA3 v6.0 Chapter 4 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

HSRP

PortFast

trunking

EtherChannel*

2. Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?

It requires full duplex.

It is Cisco proprietary.*

It requires more physical links than LACP does.

It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.

It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.

3. Which two protocols are used to implement EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

Spanning Tree Protocol

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol

Port Aggregation Protocol*

Link Aggregation Control Protocol*

Cisco Discovery Protocol

4. Which statement describes a characteristic of EtherChannel?

It can combine up to a maximum of 4 physical links.

It can bundle mixed types of 100 Mb/s and 1Gb/s Ethernet links.

It consists of multiple parallel links between a switch and a router.

It is made by combining multiple physical links that are seen as one link between two switches.*

5. Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.*

EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.

6. An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?​

S1-on and S2-passive

S1-passive and S2-passive​

S1-on and S2-active​

S1-passive and S2-active*

7. What is an advantage of using LACP?

increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices

decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop

allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links*

provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation

decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel

8. What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?

Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.

Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.

Shut down each of the affected interfaces.*

Enable each of the affected interfaces.

Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.

9. Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.

switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.​*

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.​

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.​

10. Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between two directly connected switches? (Choose three.)

port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel

VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

domain names on the switches

speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel

11. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive. Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this EtherChannel?

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active*

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

12. Refer to the exhibit.

An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.

The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.

The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.​

The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.*

13. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network administrator make? (Choose two.)

The EtherChannel bundle is working.

The EtherChannel bundle is not working.*

One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.*

Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.

LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.

Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is increased.

14. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator issued the show etherchannel summary command on the switch S1. What conclusion can be drawn?

The EtherChannel is suspended.

The EtherChannel is not functional.*

The port aggregation protocol PAgP is misconfigured.

FastEthernet ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 do not join the EtherChannel.

15. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.

The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.

The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.

The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.*

16. What is a requirement to configure a trunking EtherChannel between two switches?

The participating interfaces must be physically contiguous on a switch.

The allowed range of VLANs must be the same on both switches.*

The participating interfaces must be on the same module on a switch.

The participating interfaces must be assigned the same VLAN number on both switches.

17. What is the purpose of HSRP?

It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.*

It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.

It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

18. Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

HSRP

VRRPv2*

GLBP

SLB

19. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?

the IP address and the MAC address of R1

the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1*

the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1

the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2

20. Refer to the exhibit.

What statement is true about the output of the show standby command?

The current priority of this router is 120.

The router is currently forwarding packets.*

This router is tracking two properly operating interfaces.

This router is in the HSRP down state because its tracked interfaces are down.

21. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

192.168.2.0

192.168.2.1

192.168.2.2

192.168.2.100*

22. A network administrator would like to ensure that router R1 is always elected the active router for an HSRP group. Which set of commands would ensure the required results?

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0
R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1
R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 1
R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.250 255.255.255.0
R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1
R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0
R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1
R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 255
R1(config-if)# standby 1 preempt
R1(config-if)# no shutdown*

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0
R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1
R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 150
R1(config-if)# no shutdown

23. Fill in the blank.

In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single “virtual” router.

24. Match the description to the correct command. (Not all options are used.)

show interfaces fa0/2 etherchannel = This command shows information about the status of a port that is involved in the Etherchannel.

show interfaces port-channel1 =  This command shows information about the reability of the port channel.

show etherchannel summary =  This command is used to check what port channels are configured on a switch.

show etherchannel port-channel =  This command shows the list of ports that are involved in the port channel and the time since the ports were bundled.

25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from Laptop0 towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)

The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.

The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.

The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.

The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.*

The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different VLANs.*

CCNA3 v6.0 Chapter 3 Exam Answers

1. Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

static default routes
implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
redundant links between Layer 2 switches*
link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches*

2. What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.*
CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

3. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

prevents Layer 2 loops*
prevents routing loops on a router
creates smaller collision domains
creates smaller broadcast domains
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

4. What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.*
The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.

5. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

MAC address
VLAN ID*
IP address
port ID

6. Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

port ID
IP address
extended system ID*
MAC address*
bridge priority*
cost

7. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

SW1 will become the root bridge.
SW2 will become the root bridge.
SW2 will get a port blocked.
SW4 will get a port blocked.*
SW3 will become the root bridge.*
SW4 will become the root bridge.

8. Refer to the exhibit.

Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

Trunk1
Trunk2*
Trunk3
Trunk4

9. Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?

STP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
MST*

10. Which Cisco switch feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a port is mistakenly connected to another switch?

BPDU guard*
extended system ID
PortFast
PVST+

11. Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

STP*
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
MSTP
RSTP*

12. Which spanning tree standard supports only one root bridge so that traffic from all VLANs flows over the same path?

Rapid PVST
802.1D*
MST
PVST+

13. What is an advantage of PVST+?

PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.*

14. In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)

blocking
disabled
forwarding*
learning*
listening

15. If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

lowest IP address
lowest MAC address*
highest IP address
highest MAC address

16. Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

trunk ports
designated ports
root ports
edge ports*

17. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

Link types are determined automatically.*
Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.

18. Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

listening
learning
forwarding*
blocking

19. Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0*
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

20. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the role of the SW3 switch?

designated switch
edge switch
root bridge*
enabled bridge
local bridge

21. To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

The root bridge BID.*
The role of the ports in all VLANs.*
The status of native VLAN ports.
The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

22. What port type is used to interconnect switches in a switch stack?

StackWise*
root
designated
edge

23. Match the spanning-tree feature with the protocol type. (Not all options are used.)

PVST+ = Cisco implementation of IEEE 802.1D

RSTP = Fast converging enhancement of IEEE 802.1D

MSTP = IEEE standard that reduces the number of STP instances

Rapid PVST+ = Proprietary per VLAN implementation of IEEE 802.1w

24. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The spanning-tree “mode rapid-pvst” global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.

25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which switch is the root bridge?​

Switch_1
Switch_2
Switch_3
Switch_4*

CCNA3 v6.0 Chapter 2 Exam Answers

1. What is a characteristic of VTP?

Switches in VTP client mode store VLAN information in NVRAM.

Switches in VTP transparent mode forward VTP advertisements.*

Switches in VTP server mode cannot be updated by switches in VTP client mode.

Switches in VTP transparent mode revert back to VTP server mode after a reboot.

2. Which two VTP parameters must be identical on all switches in the network in order to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose two.)

VTP domain name*

VTP revision number

VTP domain password*

VTP server mode

VTP client mode

VTP transparent mode

3. Which two events will cause the VTP revision number on a VTP server to change? (Choose two.)

adding VLANs*

rebooting the switch

changing the VTP domain name*

changing the switch to a VTP client

changing interface VLAN designations

4. Given the following configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

switch(vlan)# vtp version 2
switch(vlan)# vtp mode server
switch(vlan)# vtp domain Cisco
switch(vlan)# vtp password mypassword

This switch can create, modify, and delete all VLANs within the Cisco domain.*

This switch maintains a full list of all VLANs and can create VLANs, but cannot delete or modify existing VLANs.

The password will prevent unauthorized routers from participating in the Cisco domain.

This switch can advertise its VLAN configuration to other switches in the Cisco domain only, but can receive advertisements from other domains.

This switch can send and receive advertisements from only the Cisco domain.*

5. Where is the vlan.dat file stored on a switch?

in RAM

in NVRAM

in flash memory*

on the externally attached storage media or internal hard drive

6. A switch is participating in a VTP domain and configured as a VTP server. The switch needs to propagate VLAN 10 (used by the Manufacturing department) throughout the VTP domain, but does not have any directly connected hosts using that particular VLAN. Which configuration would satisfy this requirement?

interface fa0/24
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 10

interface g0/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 10

vlan 10
name Manufacturing
exit*

vtp mode server
vtp password Manufacturing

7. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate*

S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable

S1(config-if)# switchport mode access

S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none

8. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch*

when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto

when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable

on links that should not be trunking*

on links that should dynamically attempt trunking

9. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

show vlan brief

show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport*

show mac address-table interface Fa0/1

show interfaces trunk

10. Refer to the exhibit.

Communication between the VLANs is not occurring. What could be the issue?

The wrong port on the router has been used.

The Gi1/1 switch port is not in trunking mode.*

A duplex issue exists between the switch and the router.

Default gateways have not been configured for each VLAN.

11. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing. However, the communication between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 fails. Based on the output of the show vlan command, what is the cause of the problem?

Gi1/1 and Gi1/2 are not configured as trunk mode.

Gi1/1 and Gi1/2 are not assigned to their respective VLANs.*

The IP addresses on Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 are switched by mistake.

The IP addresses on Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 are not on the same network.

12. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?

Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port.

The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly.

There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0.

The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.

The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN.*

13. What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?

The ports are disabled.

The ports are placed in trunk mode.

The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.

The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.*

14. Refer to the exhibit.

After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.

There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.

RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.*

The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.

15. Refer to the exhibit.

A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?​

The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45.

The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.

The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.

There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*

16. How are IP addressing designs affected by VLAN implementations?

VLANs do not support VLSM.

VLANs do not use a broadcast address.

Each VLAN must have a different network number.*

Each VLAN must have a different subnet mask.

17. Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation? (Choose three.)

using a non-trunk link to connect switches*

using non-Cisco switches*

configuring all switches to be in VTP server mode

not using any VTP passwords on any switches

using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names*

having a VTP transparent switch in between a VTP server switch and a VTP client switch (all switches in the same VTP domain)

18. Refer to the exhibit.

The switch does the routing for the hosts that connect to VLAN 5. If the PC accesses a web server from the Internet, at what point will a VLAN number be added to the frame?

point A

point B

point C

point D

point E

No VLAN number is added to the frame in this design.*

19. How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?

Traffic is routed via physical interfaces.

Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.*

Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces.

Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.

20. While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?

to create a routed port for a single network*

to provide a static trunk link

to create a switched virtual interface

to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic

21. What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?

Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing.

Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.*

Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch.

Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.

22. What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3 switch?

It supports trunking.

It is not assigned to a VLAN.*

It is commonly used as a WAN link.

It cannot have an IP address assigned to it.

23. Fill in the blank.

In a Cisco switch, the extended range VLAN information is stored in the “running configuration” file.

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
Which command is missing on the Layer 3 switch to restore the full connectivity between PC1 and the web server?

(Note that typing no shutdown will not fix this problem.) “ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

25. Match the DTP mode with its function. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA3 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Answers

1. What are two expected features of modern enterprise networks? (Choose two.)

support for limited growth

support for critical applications*

support for distributed administrative control

support for 90 percent reliability

support for converged network traffic*

2. What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?

the installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network

the configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway

the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core

the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch connections between them*

3. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network

continually purchase backup equipment for the network

implement STP portfast between the switches on the network

add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network*

4. Refer to the exhibit.

Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

S4 and PC_2

PC_3 and AP_2*

AP_2 and AP_1

PC_3 and PC_2

S1 and S4

5. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

the use of a collapsed core design

the use of the building switch block approach*

the installation of redundant power supplies

the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume

6. A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.

Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.*

Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.

Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

7. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

increased flexibility*

decreased number of critical points of failure

reduced costs*

increased bandwidth availability

increased network management options

8. Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)

failover capabilities*

collapsed core

redundant power supplies*

failure domains

services module

9. What capability is provided by the use of application-specific integrated circuits in Cisco multilayer switches?

aggregating physical ports into a single logical interface

protecting data traffic in the event of a failed circuit

forwarding of IP packets independent of the CPU*

providing user authentication and authorization

10. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.

They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.*

They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.

They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.



11. In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access

on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management

on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility*

on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

12. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.

They are best used as distribution layer switches.

They are modular switches.

New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.*

13. What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)

broadcast traffic containment

failover capability

forwarding rate*

port density*

Power over Ethernet*

speed of convergence

14. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It connects multiple IP networks.*

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It determines the best path to send packets.*

It manages the VLAN database.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

15. A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a​​ replacement?

a Layer 3 switch

a modular router*

a PoE device

another fixed configuration router

16. When a Cisco IOS device is being selected or upgraded, which option indicates the capabilities of the Cisco IOS device?

version number

feature set*

release number

platform

17. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

show flash

show NVRAM

show startup-config*

show running-config*

show version

18. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was issued on a Cisco switch that resulted in the exhibited output?

show vlan brief

show port-security address*

show mac-address-table

show vlan summary

19. What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

It uses a terminal emulation client.

It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.

It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.*

20. Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)

a direct connection to the console port

a direct connection to the auxiliary port

a terminal emulation client

at least one network interface that is connected and operational*

Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device*

21. Which type of information is displayed by the show ip protocols command that is issued from a router command prompt?

the configured routing protocols and the networks that the router is advertising*

interfaces with line (protocol) status and I/O statistics

interface information, including whether an ACL is enabled on the interface

the routed protocol that is enabled and the protocol status of interfaces

22. A network technician needs to connect a PC to a Cisco network device for initial configuration. What is required to perform this device configuration?

Telnet access*

at least one operational network interface on the Cisco device

HTTP access

terminal emulation client

23. Match the purpose to the related configuration item. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 10 Exam Answers 2017

1. A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?

The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.

The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.*

The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.

The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established from a non-directly connected network.

 

2. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?​

The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity​.

To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.

CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface​.*

Because it runs at the data link layer​, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

 

3. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices*

to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)

Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.

Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.*

Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client.

The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2.*

The IP address of R2 is 192.168.1.2.

 

5. Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.

All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.

NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.*

NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.*

NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.

 

6. The command ntp server 10.1.1.1 is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?

determines which server to send system log files to

identifies the server on which to store backup configurations

ensures that all logging will have a time stamp associated with it

synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1*

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the syslog message that was generated by the router? (Choose two.)

This message resulted from an unusual error requiring reconfiguration of the interface.

This message indicates that the interface should be replaced.

This message is a level 5 notification message.*

This message indicates that service timestamps have been configured.*

This message indicates that the interface changed state five times.

 

8. Which protocol or service allows network administrators to receive system messages that are provided by network devices?

syslog*

NTP

SNMP

NetFlow

 

9. Which syslog message type is accessible only to an administrator and only via the Cisco CLI?

errors

debugging*

emergency

alerts

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. From what location have the syslog messages been retrieved?

syslog server

syslog client

router RAM*

router NVRAM

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 17:46:26.143 represent?

the time passed since the syslog server has been started

the time when the syslog message was issued*

the time passed since the interfaces have been up

the time on the router when the show logging command was issued

 

12. What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

terminal line

syslog server

console line*

workstation

 

13. A network administrator has issued the logging trap 4 global configuration mode command. What is the result of this command?

After four events, the syslog client will send an event message to the syslog server.

The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and higher.

The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and lower.​*

The syslog client will send to the syslog server event messages with an identification trap level of only 4.​

 

14. What is the major release number in the IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?

2

3

15*

52

1900

 

15. What statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the &##8220;universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?

It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.

It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.

It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.

It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong cryptographic functionality.​*

 

16. What code in the Cisco IOS 15 image filename c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin indicates that the file is digitally signed by Cisco?

SPA*

universalk9

M

mz

 

17. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.

Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.

Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.

Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.*

Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.*

 

18. A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom

What is the effect of the command sequence?

On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.

The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.

The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.*

The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.

 

19. A network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a 2900 series ISR. What command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash memory as well as how much flash memory is currently available?

show flash0:*

show version

show interfaces

show startup-config

 

20. Beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is a prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?

IPBase*

DATA

UC

SEC

 

21. Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?

DATA*

IPVoice

Security*

Enterprise Services

Unified Communications*

Advanced IP Services

 

22. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

Software Claim Certificate

End User License Agreement

Unique Device Identifier

Product Activation Key*

 

23. In addition to IPBase, what are the three technology packs that are shipped within the universal Cisco IOS Software Release 15 image? (Choose three.)

Advanced IP Services

Advanced Enterprise Services

DATA*

Security*

SP Services

Unified Communications*

 

24. Which command would a network engineer use to find the unique device identifier of a Cisco router?

show version

show license udi*

show running-configuration

license install stored-location-url

 

25. Which command is used to configure a one-time acceptance of the EULA for all Cisco IOS software packages and features?

license save

show license

license boot module module-name

license accept end user agreement*

 

26. Refer to the exhibit. Match the components of the IOS image name to their description. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 9 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which method is used by a PAT-enabled router to send incoming packets to the correct inside hosts?

It uses the destination TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.*
It uses the source IP address on the incoming packet.
It uses the source TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.
It uses a combination of the source TCP or UDP port number and the destination IP address on the incoming packet.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

10.1.1.2
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network
192.168.0.100
209.165.20.25*

3 Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

NAT overload is also known as “Port Address Translation

4. A network administrator is configuring a static NAT on the border router for a web server located in the DMZ network. The web server is configured to listen on TCP port 8080. The web server is paired with the internal IP address of 192.168.5.25 and the external IP address of 209.165.200.230. For easy access by hosts on the Internet, external users do not need to specify the port when visiting the web server. Which command will configure the static NAT?

R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 80 209.165.200.230 8080
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 8080 209.165.200.230 80*
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.230 80 192.168.5.25 8080
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.230 8080 192.168.5.25 80

5. What is defined by the ip nat pool command when configuring dynamic NAT?

the pool of available NAT servers
the range of external IP addresses that internal hosts are permitted to access
the range of internal IP addresses that are translated
the pool of global address*

6. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
PAT using an external interface*
static NAT with one entry
static NAT with a NAT pool

7. What is the primary purpose of NAT?

conserve IPv4 addresses*
increase network security
allow peer-to-peer file sharing
enhance network performance

8. What is the major benefit of using NAT with Port Address Translation?

It allows external hosts access to internal servers.
It improves network performance for real-time protocols.
It allows many internal hosts to share the same public IPv4 address.*
It provides a pool of public addresses that can be assigned to internal hosts.

9. What is a characteristic of unique local addresses?

They allow sites to be combined without creating any address conflicts.*
They are designed to improve the security of IPv6 networks.
Their implementation depends on ISPs providing the service.
They are defined in RFC 3927.

10. A network administrator configures the border router with the command R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp. What is required to be configured in order for this particular command to be functional?

a NAT pool named corp that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses*
an access list named corp that defines the private addresses that are affected by NAT
an access list numbered 4 that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses
ip nat outside to be enabled on the interface that connects to the LAN affected by the NAT
a VLAN named corp to be enabled and active and routed by R1

11. Which statement describes IPv6 ULAs?

They conserve IPv6 address space.
They begin with the fe80::/10 prefix.
They are assigned by an ISP.
They are not routable across the internet.*

12. What is the purpose of port forwarding?

Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.*
Port forwarding allows users to reach servers on the Internet that are not using standard port numbers.
Port forwarding allows an internal user to reach a service on a public IPv4 address that is located outside a LAN.
Port forwarding allows for translating inside local IP addresses to outside local addresses.

13. When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?

No users can access the server.
The request to the server for the seventh user fails.*
All users can access the server.
The first user gets disconnected when the seventh user makes the request.

14. A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?

The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.*
The company needs to have more public IP addresses available to be used on the Internet.
The company router must throttle or buffer traffic because the processing power of the router is not enough to handle the normal load of external-bound Internet traffic.
The company has a small number of servers that should be accessible by clients from the Internet.

15. Match the steps with the actions that are involved when an internal host with IP address 192.168.10.10 attempts to send a packet to and external server at the IP address 209.165.200.254 across a router R1 that running dynamic NAT. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
step 5 => R1 replaces the address 192.168.10.10 with a translated inside global address.
step 2 => R1 checks the NAT configuration to determine if this packet should be translated.
step 4 => R1 selects an available global address from the dynamic address pool.
step 1 => The cost sends packets that request a connection to the server at the address 209.165.200.254
step 3 => If there is no translation entry for this IP address, R1 determines that the source address 192.168.10.10 must be translated.

16. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing.*
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated*
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

18. What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)

Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.*
Create a standard access list to define applications that should be translated.
Define the range of source ports to be used.
Identify the inside interface.*
Define the hello and interval timers to match the adjacent neighbor router.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server?

Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. *
Interface Fa0/1 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.
The IP NAT statement is incorrect.
The configuration is missing a valid access control list.

20. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.*
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network. *
It increases routing performance. It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.
It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.

21. What is an advantage of deploying IPv4 NAT technology for internal hosts in an organization?

makes internal network access easy for outside hosts using UDP
provides flexibility in designing the IPv4 addressing scheme*
increases the performance of packet transmission to the Internet
enables the easy deployment of applications that require end-to-end traceability

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

unicast DHCPACK

broadcast DHCPACK

unicast DHCPREQUEST

broadcast DHCPREQUEST*

 

 2. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255*

both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server

MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server

 

3. Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?

manual allocation

pre-allocation

automatic allocation

dynamic allocation*

 

4. Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?

client IP address

client hardware address*

gateway IP address

broadcast MAC address

 

5. As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST*

DHCPACK

 

6. What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent?

It will allow DHCPDISCOVER messages to pass without alteration.

It can forward both broadcast and multicast messages on behalf of clients.

It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services.*

It reduces the response time from a DHCP server.

 

7. An administrator issues the commands:

Router(config)# interface g0/1
Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp

What is the administrator trying to achieve?

configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server*

configuring the router to act as a relay agent

configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

 

8. Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)

The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.*

The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.

The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.

This is an ISP requirement.*

The router has a fixed IP address.

 

9. A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?​

the all-routers multicast address

the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network*

the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network

the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network

 

10. A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.

It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.

It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.*

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique.

 

11. A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?

DHCPv6 SOLICIT

DHCPv6 REQUEST

DHCPv6 ADVERTISE

DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST*

 

12. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

SLAAC

stateless DHCPv6*

stateful DHCPv6

RA and EUI-64

 

13. How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?

It sends an ARP message with the IPv6 address as the destination IPv6 address.

It checks with the IPv6 address database that is hosted by the SLAAC server.

It contacts the DHCPv6 server via a special formed ICMPv6 message.

It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.*

 

14. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface*

a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

 

15. What two methods can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC? (Choose two.)

EUI-64*

random generation*

stateful DHCPv6

DAD

ARP

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q16

SLAAC

stateful DHCPv6

stateless DHCPv6*

static link-local

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q17

Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.*

Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1.

Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag.

Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q18

No virtual link-local address is configured.

The Duplicate Address Detection feature is disabled.

The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation.

The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation*

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q19

The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated.

The router is configured for SLAAC operation.*

The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.

The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0.

 

20. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.

Type a command to exclude the first fifteen useable IP addresses from a DHCPv4 address pool of the network 10.0.15.0/24.

Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15

 

21. Order the steps of configuring a router as a DHCPv4 server. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q21

Place the options in the following order:

[+] Step 2  -> Configure a DHCP pool.
[+] Step 1  -> Exclude IP addresses.
– not scored –
[+] Step 3  ->Define the default gateway router
– not scored –

 

22. Match the descriptions to the corresponding DHCPv6 sever type. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q22

Place the options in the following order:

Stateless DHCPv6
[+] enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command
[+] clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server
[+] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command

Stateful DHCPv6
[#] the M flag is set to 1 in RA messages
[#] uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients
[#] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address dhcp command

CCNA 2 Routing and Switching Essentials v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2017

 

1. Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

management

user-generated

un tagged

tagged*

2. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number?

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number.*

An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.*

The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.

The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

3. A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

4. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

vty lines

VTP domain

loopback address*

default gateway

default VLAN*

IP address*

5. A network administrator configures a router to provide stateful DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations do not receive IPv6 addresses within the scope. Which configuration command should be checked to ensure that statefull DHCPv6 is implemented?

The dns-server line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.*

The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.

The ipv6 nd other-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.

The domain-name line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.

6. Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

Frames are forwarded without any error checking.

Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching accurs with lower latency.*

Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.

Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

7. Refer to the exhibit.

A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

10.0.0.31

172.16.12.5

172.16.12.33

192.168.1.10

172.16.25.35*

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

9. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip dhcp pool

ip address dhcp*

service dhcp

ip helper-address

 

10. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​

a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message

a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message​

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message​*

a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message​

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.*

 

12. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365*

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary.

 

13. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing.*

The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​

 

14. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Telnet

IPsec*

HTTP

ICMP

DNS

 

15. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

R1 Gi0/1.12*

R1 S0/0/0

R2 S0/0/1

R2 Gi0/1.20

inbound

outbound*

 

17. Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

destination MAC address

ICMP message type*

computer type

source TCP hello address

destination UDP port number*

 

18. A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN

in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server

in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN

in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device*

 

19. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

access list number between 1 and 99

access list number between 100 and 199*

default gateway address and wildcard mask

destination address and wildcard mask*

source address and wildcard mask*

source subnet mask and wildcard mask

destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

 

20. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

0.0.0.127

0.0.0.255

0.0.1.255*

0.0.255.255

A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

 

21. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list standard VTY

permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

 

22. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

permit ip any any

permit ip any host ip_address

permit icmp any any nd-na*

deny ip any any

 

23. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

 

24. Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

The ip route command was used.

The ipv6 route command was used.

Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.*

The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

 

25. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.

IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.

IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.

IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.*

 

26. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

child route

ultimate route

default route

level 1 parent route*

 

27. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*

ISP selection

speed of convergence*

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

 

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

directly attached static route

recursive static route*

fully specified static route

floating static route

 

29. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

 

30. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0

 

31. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

1

2

3*

4

 

32. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.

OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.*

 

33. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.

They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.

They request more information about their databases.

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.*

 

34. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.

Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

Cost equals bandwidth.

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*

 

35. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*

the type of network link*

the link next-hop IP address

the link bandwidth

the cost of that link*

 

36. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.*

The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*

The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.

The link interface subnet masks must match.*

The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

 

37. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

 

38. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*

The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

 

39. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding*

to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows

to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly

to determine which ports are functioning

 

40. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict*

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

 

41. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.

A cable has not been attached to the port.*

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.

There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

 

42. What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.

NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.

A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.*

 

43. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.*

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.

Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.​

 

44. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – trunk*

access – trunk

access – dynamic auto

 

45. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

Change the native VLAN on both ports.

Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.

Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.*

Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.

Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.*

 

46. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk*

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

 

47. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

 

48. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100

Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100

Switch(config)# no vlan 100*

 

49. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.

The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.*

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

 

50. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

All devices in all VLANs see the frame.

Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.*

Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

 

51. Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.

There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​*

The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​

 

52. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*

The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.

The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

 

53. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1*

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

 

54. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

Step 1 – Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.

Step 2 – Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.

Step 3 – Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

Step 4 – Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database

Step 5 – Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best

 

 

55. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

 

56. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains

5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains*

5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

 

57. What is a function of the distribution layer?

fault isolation

network access to the user

high-speed backbone connectivity

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*

 

58. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching*

59. Fill in the blank. In IPv6, all routes are level __1__ ultimate routes.

60. Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the __ip route__ global configuration command.

61. Fill in the blank. The OSPF Type 1 packet is the __Hello__ packet.

62. Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is __1__ .

63. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID*
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID

64. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport*

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# ip routing*

65. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0*
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

66. How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*
the lowest MAC address on an active interface

67. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

68. Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.)

69. A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?

static NAT
dynamic NAT*
port address translation

DHCP

70. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.

71. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.*
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.*
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.*
Configuration of static routes is error-free. Static routes scale well as the network grows.

72. When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair*
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration

73. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?

The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.*
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.

74. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

show processes show cdp neighbor
show access-lists*
show ip route
show running-config*

75. Refer to the exhibit.

What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?

192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22*
192.168.0.0/21

76. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses*

77. Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance*

78. Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?

flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM

79. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.*
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

80. Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?

Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
Change the administrative distance to 120.*

81. Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one for VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?

SW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.
SW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.*
SW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.

82. A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80 deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80*
permit ipv6 any any*
deny ipv6 any any

ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in*
ip access-group NoWeb in

83. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and 172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to neighbors?

router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0*
router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

84. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?

255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0*
255.255.255.224

85. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

1
5*
8
20
25
30

86. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

Flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM

87. A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect*
shutdown

88. A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this ACL?

access-group 11 in*
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

89. Refer to the exhibit.What address will summarize the LANs attached to routers 2-A and 3-A and can be configured in a summary static route to advertise them to an upstream neighbor?

10.0.0.0/24
10.0.0.0/23
10.0.0.0/22
10.0.0.0/21*

90. A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80

deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80*

deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80*

permit ipv6 any any

deny ipv6 any any*

ip access-group WebFilter in

ipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in

91. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

192.168.5.64
192.168.5.0*
192.168.0.0
No address is displayed.

92. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the interval web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board Office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implement the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed
the ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers
named ACLs requite the use of port numbers*
the ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction

93. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

1
2*
3
4
5
6

94. A router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for specific situation?

Metric*
Colour
Meter
Bread

95. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

Ipv6
OSPF
Link-access
To have only a link-local IPv6 address*
Protocol

96. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.*
Half duplex has only one channel.
All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.*

Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

97. Fill in the blank.The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network.

__VoIP__

98. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

99. Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?

S1(config-if)# mdix auto*
S1# auto-mdix S1(config-if)# auto-mdix
S1# mdix auto S1(config)# mdix auto
S1(config)# auto-mdix

100. What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured for OSPF?

Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.*
All of above
Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol

101. A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that are reachable over a TCP session
routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol*
routers that reside in the same area
routers that exchange LSAs

102. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

Address translation is working.*
Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.*
Two types of NAT are enabled.*
One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

103. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

console access –> Not Scored
full operating system –> flash
limited operating system –> ROM
routing table –> RAM
startup configuration file –> NVRAM

104. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*
Configure SSH for remote management.*
Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

105. Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

0.0.0.0
10.16.100.128*
10.16.100.2
110
791

106. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10*

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1

107. Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer
a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
a collapsed core network design*
a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

108. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

1
2
3
4
5*
6
11

109. A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for this specific situation?

routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance*

110. Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

administrative distance*
metric
outgoing interface
routing protocol

111. The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard mask?

0.0.0.31
0.0.0.255
0.0.0.127*
0.0.0.63

112. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

FF02::5*
FF02::6*
FF02::A
2001:db8:cafe::1
FF02::1:2
FE80::1*

113. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?​

65*

114. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2 LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from R1?

782
74*
128
65

115. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect
shutdown

116. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2
172.16.26.254
172.16.47.254*
172.16.48.5

117. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)

mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces*
a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is
used use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces
one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port
mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers*

118. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs as many switch ports as possible for end devices and the business is using the most common type of inter-VLAN method. What type of inter-VLAN interconnectivity is best to use between the switch and the router if R1 routes for all VLANs?

one link between the switch and the router with the router using three router subinterfaces
one link between the switch and the router with the one switch port being configured in access mode
three links between the switch and the router with the three switch ports being configured in access mode
two links between the switch and the router with the two switch ports being configured in access mode

119. A part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

120. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the internal web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

121. Refer to the exhibit. A new network policy requires an ACL denying FTP and Telnet access to a Corp file server from all interns. The address of the file server is 172.16.1.15 and all interns are assigned addresses in the 172.18.200.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, no one in the Corp network can access any of the servers. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

122. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

123. Router R1 routes traffic to the 10.10.0.0/16 network using an EIGRP learned route from Branch2. The administrator would like to install a floating static route to create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down. Which static route meets this goal?

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100***

124. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

172.16.100.64***

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2018