CCNA 4 Pretest Exam Answers 2018

1. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

flash

NVRAM

RAM*

ROM

2. How does implementing STP allow for a scalable network design?

It eliminates Layer 2 loops from redundant links.*

It provides failover services when duplicate network equipment is used.

It filters broadcasts and other undesirable traffic from the network.

It prevents local traffic from propagating to other parts of the network.

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

4. What is a characteristic of a default static route? ​

It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.

It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.*

It is configured with a higher administrative distance than is the original dynamic routing protocol.

5. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – trunk*

access – trunk

access – dynamic auto

6. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

FastEthernet0/1

VLAN 1*

vty 0

console 0

7. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

8. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 4 v6.0 Pretest Exam Answers

Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?

S1

S2*

S3

S4

9. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

ARP

DHCP*

DNS*

FTP*

NAT

PPP

10. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the communication carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)

crosstalk*

bandwidth

size of the network

signal modulation technique

electromagnetic interference*

11. Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

12. A network engineer has been tasked with connecting two large autonomous systems (AS) together over the Internet. Which routing protocol should be selected?

EIGRP

OSPFv2

IS-IS

BGP*

13. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?

source MAC address

source IP address

destination MAC address*

Ethernet type

destination IP address

14. What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

to provide increased network security*

to shut down unused interfaces

to avoid unnecessary update traffic*

to mitigate attacks coming from the interfaces

to exclude interfaces from load balancing

15. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet forwarding*

microsegmentation

domain name resolution

path selection*

flow control

16. Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 switch

Layer 3 switch*

hub

repeater

router*

17. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.

The router uses the default route.

The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*

The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

18. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private network use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8*

172.16.0.0/12*

192.168.0.0/16*

100.64.0.0/14

169.254.0.0/16

239.0.0.0/8

19. Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

destination address and wildcard mask

source address and wildcard mask*

subnet mask and wildcard mask

access list number between 100 and 199

access list number between 1 and 99

20. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
192.168.1.68 -> 192.168.1.64/27
— not scored —
192.168.1.48 -> 192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.121 -> 192.168.1.96/27

21. Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?

the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router

the IP address of the highest active interface on the router

the router-id rid command*

the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface

22. A network administrator is entering the command ipv6 unicast-routing to start configuring DHCPv6 operation on a router. Which statement describes the function of this command?

It is required for sending ICMPv6 RA messages.*

It is required to configure stateful DHCPv6 server on the router.

It is required to configure stateless DHCPv6 server on the router.

It is required for enabling DNS service in DHCPv6 configurations.

23. What three services are provided by the transport layer? (Choose three.)

flow control*

encryption of data

path determination

connection establishment*

error recovery*

bit transmission

data representation

24. Which TCP/IP model layer is closest to the end user?

application*

internet

network access

transport

25. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

exec-timeout 30

service password-encryption

banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

26. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*

when the network will span multiple buildings

when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN

27. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

dial-up connection

leased line connection

site-to-site VPN over the Internet

remote access VPN over the Internet*

28. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.*

PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.

PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*

PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.*

29. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:

R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70

What is the effect of these commands?

The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*

The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

30. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

PPPoE*

CHAP

ADSL

LTE

31. Refer to the exhibit.

All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

2

3

4*

5

32. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

access list number between 1 and 99

access list number between 100 and 199*

default gateway address and wildcard mask

destination address and wildcard mask*

source address and wildcard mask*

source subnet mask and wildcard mask

destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

33. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

data analytics

fog computing*

network connectivity

application enhancement platform

34. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

VTP

LLDP

HSRP

RADIUS*

TACACS+*

35. What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.*

They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.

They should be placed on the fastest interface available.

They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

36. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis?

802.1X

SNMP

SPAN*

syslog

37. Match the term to the description. (Not all options are used.)

38. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

CoS*

ToS

DSCP

IP precedence

39. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

syslog records and messages

the network performance baseline*

debug output and packet captures

network configuration files

40. Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations?

LLDP

IP SLA*

syslog

SPAN

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 100% Option B

1. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.*

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

2. Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?

EIGRP

BGP

OSPF*

RIPv2

3. In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?

distribution

transport

internet

access*

core

4. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
show ip protocols

show ip interface

show cdp neighbors*

show port-security

show mac-address-table

5. A switched network has converged completely. All switches currently have a VTP revision number of 5. A new switch that has been configured as a VTP server is added to the network. The new switch has a VTP revision number of 4. What will occur within the network?

The network will no longer share VLAN database updates.

The newly added switch will automatically switch to VTP client mode.

The VTP databases will remain unchanged in all switches with the exception of the newly added switch.*

All switches in the network will update their VTP database to reflect the VTP database of the new switch.

6. What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)

In the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created, modified, and deleted on the switch.*

Switches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.*

A switch in transparent mode with a higher configuration revision number than the existing VTP server updates all VLAN information throughout the VTP domain.

To reset a configuration revision number, the switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded.

VTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.*

Switches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if their revision numbers are the same.

7. A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?

Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.*

Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.

Configure the VLANs on the new switch.

Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.

8. A network administrator is adding a new VLAN for testing. The company uses VTP and the VLAN is not directly attached to either of the switches configured as VTP servers. What is the best method to add this VLAN to the network?

Change the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN to be in VTP server mode.

Configure a port on the VTP servers for the same VLAN as the new VLAN.

Manually add the VLAN to the VLAN database of the VTP servers.*

Configure interfaces on the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN and reboot the switch.

9. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – trunk*

access – trunk

access – dynamic auto

10. Refer to the exhibit.

The configuration shows the commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?

trunking

port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports

VLAN configuration*

router port configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit.

Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.

There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.*

VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.

VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.

This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.*

12. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Include a router in the topology.

Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*

Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

13. What are two drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network? (Choose two.)

The switch acts like a hub.

Port security becomes unstable.

The MAC address table becomes unstable.*

Broadcast frames are transmitted indefinitely.*

Port security shuts down all of the ports that have attached devices.

14. Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?

root port*

non-designated port

designated port

disabled port

15. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the role of the SW3 switch?

designated switch

edge switch

root bridge*

enabled bridge

local bridge

16. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

SW1 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will get a port blocked.

SW4 will get a port blocked.*

SW3 will become the root bridge.*

SW4 will become the root bridge.

17. Which spanning tree standard was developed by Cisco to provide separate instances of 802.1w per VLAN?

RSTP

802.1D

MSTP

Rapid PVST+*

18. Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?

VLSM

PVST

802.1Q

RSTP*

VTP

19. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?

The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the root bridge.*

The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the backup root bridge.

The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switches believing they are the root.

The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.

20. An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?

A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.

Spanning tree should be disabled ​for that STP instance until the problem is located.

Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.

Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.*

21. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switching technology would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?

EtherChannel*

HSRP

PortFast

trunking

22. What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.*

Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.

EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.

Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.*

Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.

23. When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?

interface range

loopback

VLAN interface

port channel*

24. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?

active

auto

desirable

passive*

25. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

on

desirable*

active

auto*

passive

26. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*

It is nonproprietary.

It uses a virtual router master.

It works together with VRRP.

27. A new chief information officer (CIO) has requested implementation of a link-state dynamic routing protocol. Which two routing protocols fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)

RIPv2

BGP

OSPF*

IS-IS*

EIGRP

28. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is utilizing RIPv1 in the exhibited network topology. What would the router R2 do with a packet that is originating from the 192.168.4.0/24 network and destined for network 172.16.1.0/24?

The router will forward the packet to R1.

The router will forward the packet to R3.

The router will load balance and forward packets to both R1 and R3.*

The router will drop the packet.

29. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.

They only send out updates when a new network is added.

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*

They flood the entire network with routing updates.

30. Which statement defines the speed of convergence of routing protocols?

The time it takes a router to form a neighbor adjacency.

The time it takes a router to learn about directly connected links..

The time it takes a router to calculate the cost of a link.

The time it takes a router within a network to forward routing information.*

31. What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

low processor overhead

poison reverse

routing loops

split horizon

Shortest Path First calculations*

32. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?

R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7*

R1-R3-R2-R6-R7

R1-R2-R6-R7

R1-R4-R5-R6-R7

33. What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?

The path with the least number of hops.

The path with the smallest delays.

The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.*

The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.

34. Which two pieces of information are contained within a link-state packet (LSP)? (Choose two.)

hop count

bandwidth*

link type*

delay

load

35. What is a difference between the routing protocols EIGRP and OSPF?

EIGRP uses hop count as the metric and OSPF uses cost as the metric.

EIGRP is an implementation of EGP whereas OSPF is an implementation of IGP.

EIGRP supports routing different network layer protocols whereas OSPF supports routing only IP-based protocols.*

EIGRP only supports equal-cost load balancing whereas OSPF supports both equal-cost and unequal-cost load balancing.

36. What protocol is used by EIGRP for the delivery and receipt of EIGRP packets?

RTP*

TCP

UDP

ICMP

37. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?

It carries the geographical information of the organization.

It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.*

It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.

It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.

38. How is bandwidth to a destination network calculated by EIGRP?

the lowest configured bandwidth of any interface along the route*

the sum of the configured bandwidths of all interfaces along the path

the highest configured bandwidth of any interface along the path

the bandwidth of the ingress interface of the last hop router

39. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.

The router uses the default route.

The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*

The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

40. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.*

R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.

The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.

If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.

41. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has attempted to implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.

There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.

The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit interface when creating a default route.

The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.*

The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.

42. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?

A static default route was configured on this router.*

A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.

The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command.​

The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0.

43. Which command would limit the amount of bandwidth that is used by EIGRP for protocol control traffic to approximately 128 Kb/s on a 1.544 Mb/s link?

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 8*

maximum-paths 8

variance 8

traffic-share balanced

44. Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?

the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router

the IP address of the highest active interface on the router

the router-id rid command*

the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface

45. What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?

The interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1 will be a passive interface.

OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.*

This command will have no effect because it uses a quad zero wildcard mask.

OSPF advertisements will include the specific IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.

46. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.*

The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*

The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.

The link interface subnet masks must match.*

The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

47. Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

FF02::5

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2

2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2

FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538*

48. When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

when the router has interfaces in different areas*

when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator

when the router has the highest router ID

when the router has an OSPF priority of 0

49. Which type of OSPF router connects an OSPF area to non-OSPF routing domains?

ABR

ASBR*

DR

backbone router

50. Which function is performed by an OSPF ABR?

flooding type 2 LSAs within an area

originating type 5 LSAs into an area

injecting type 3 LSAs into an area*

advertising the router ID of any designated routers within an area

51. What type of OSPF IPv4 route is indicated by a route table entry descriptor of O E1?

a summary route that is advertised by an ABR

an intra-area route that is advertised by the DR

an external route that is advertised by an ASBR*

a directly connected route that is associated with an Ethernet interface

52. In which mode is the area area-id range address mask command issued when multiarea OSPF summarization is being configured?

global configuration mode

router configuration mode*

interface configuration mode of area 0 interfaces

interface configuration mode of all participating interfaces

53. Refer to the exhibit.

What are three resulting DR and DBR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)

R4 is BDR for segment B.

R4 is DR for segment B.

R3 is DR for segment A.*

R2 is DR for segment A.

R3 is BDR for segment B.*

R5 is DR for segment B.*

54. After implementing an IPv6 network, the administrator notices that the OSPFv3 process is not starting on the routers. What could be the problem?​

The routers are configured with the default priority.

Authentication was not implemented between the routers.

No router IDs are configured on the routers.*

The routers were not configured with the network command.​

55. Refer to the exhibit.

How did this router learn of the highlighted route in the routing table?

by entering the router configuration mode command default-information originate

by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 interface-type interface-number

by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 ip-address

by receiving an update from another OSPF router that is running another routing protocol

by receiving an update from another OSPF router that has the default-information originate command configured*

56. Which command can be used to view OSPF adjacencies with neighboring routers along with the transition state?

show ip protocols

show ip ospf neighbor*

show ip ospf interface

show running-config

57. Match the description to the EIGRP packet type. (Not all options are used.)

58. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)

192.168.11.64 => destination network 

660110 => feasible distance to 192.168.11.64

192.168.3.1 => new successor to network 192.168.1.0

59. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

adjacency database => This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. 
Shortest Path First => This is the algorithm used by OSPF.
Single-area OSPF => All the routers are in the backbone area.
– not scored – 
link-state database => This is where you can find the topology table.
– not scored –

60. Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)

The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually. => priority 4

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface. => priority 3

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface. => prority 2

The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any. => priority 1

 

SEGA

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 100% Option A

1. What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?

failure domain*

collision domain

broadcast domain

user domain

 

2. A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.

The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.*

This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.

This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.

3. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.*

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

4. What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?

rack unit*

port density

domain size

module size

5. What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

HTTP access to the device

a terminal emulation client*

Telnet or SSH access to the device

a direct connection to the console or AUX port*

a connection to an operational network interface on the device

6. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?

configuring trunk links on the VTP server

configuring or changing the VTP password

configuring or changing the VTP domain name

configuring or changing the VTP version number

configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name*

7. What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)

In the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created and modified on a switch.*

Switches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.*

VTP-enabled switches exchange three types of advertisements: summary routes, subnet advertisements, and advertisement requests from transparent bridges.

The switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded to reset a configuration revision number.

VTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.*

Switches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if revision numbers are the same.

8. A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?

Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.*

Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.

Configure the VLANs on the new switch.

Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.

9. What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?

It holds the running configuration.

It holds the saved configuration.

It holds the VLAN database.*

It holds the operating system.

10. Refer to the exhibit.

The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host H1 cannot communicate with H2. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?

trunking

port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports

VLAN configuration*

router port configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Include a router in the topology.

Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*

Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

12. Refer to the exhibit.

Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.

There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.*

VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.

VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.

This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.*

13. What eliminates switching loops?

hold-down timers

poison reverse

Spanning Tree Protocol*

Time to Live

VTP

14. A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root bridge in this design?

1

28672*

32768

34816

61440

15. What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network?

the highest MAC address of all the ports in the switch

the lowest MAC address of all the ports in the switch

the VTP revision number

the path cost*

16. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

SW1 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will get a port blocked.

SW4 will get a port blocked.*

SW3 will become the root bridge.*

SW4 will become the root bridge.

17. Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)

listening*

learning

blocking*

disabled*

forwarding

18. A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.

Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.

Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.*

Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.

19. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

20. Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

channel-group 2 mode auto

interface port-channel 2

channel-group 1 mode desirable

interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5*

21. A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?

The EtherChannel fails.

The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.*

The remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches.

One interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup link.

22. When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?

active

auto

on*

desirable

23. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?

PAgP*

DTP

LACP

STP

24. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?

HSRP uses active and standby routers.*

It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.

It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.

HSRP is nonproprietary.

25. What is the term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address?

multihomed network

converged network

discontiguous network*

data network

26. What type of packets are sent when there is a change in the EIGRP topology?

hello

triggered bounded update*

acknowledge

reply

27. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?

R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7*

R1-R3-R2-R6-R7

R1-R2-R6-R7

R1-R4-R5-R6-R7

28. What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?

The path with the least number of hops.

The path with the smallest delays.

The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.*

The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.

29. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*

the type of network link*

the link next-hop IP address

the link bandwidth

the cost of that link*

30. What indicates to a link-state router that a neighbor is unreachable?

if the router no longer receives routing updates

if the router no longer receives hello packets*

if the router receives an update with a hop count of 16

if the router receives an LSP with previously learned information

31. What are three features of EIGRP? (Choose three.)

uses the Shortest Path First algorithm

establishes neighbor adjacencies*

uses the Reliable Transport Protocol*

sends full routing table updates periodically

broadcasts updates to all EIGRP routers

supports equal and unequal cost load balancing*

32. What capability do protocol-dependent modules provide to the EIGRP routing protocol?

route different Layer 3 protocols*

exchange summary routes between areas

combine routes learned from different protocols into a single routing table

load balance between routing protocols

33. When are EIGRP update packets sent?

only when necessary*

when learned routes age out

every 5 seconds via multicast

every 30 seconds via broadcast

34. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?

network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63*

network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192

network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127

network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128

35. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?

It carries the geographical information of the organization.

It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.*

It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.

It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.

36. Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)

delay*

MTU

reliability

transmit and receive load

bandwidth*

37. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.

The router uses the default route.

The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*

The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

38. When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?

when the EIGRP domain is converged

when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network

when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network

when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available*

39. Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

the 32-bit router ID

the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface

the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address

the interface IPv6 link-local address*

40. Refer to the exhibit.

Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?​

10.0.0.0/8*

10.1.0.0/16

10.1.0.0/28

10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28​

41. Which command will configure an IPv6 default static route?

router(config)# ipv6 ::/64 s0/0/0

router(config-rtr)# redistribute static

router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0*

router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

42. Which statement describes the load balancing behavior of EIGRP?

EIGRP for IPv4 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv6 does not.

EIGRP for IPv6 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv4 does not.

Neither EIGRP for IPv4 nor EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.

Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.*

43. What routing protocol can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command?

EIGRP*

OSPF

OSPFv3

RIPng

44. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*

The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

45. A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?

OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.

SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.

A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.

OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.*

46. In an OSPFv2 configuration, what is the effect of entering the command network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0?

It changes the router ID of the router to 192.168.1.1.

It enables OSPF on all interfaces on the router.

It tells the router which interface to turn on for the OSPF routing process.*

It allows all 192.168.1.0 networks to be advertised.

47. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.

Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

Cost equals bandwidth.

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*

48. Which two addresses represent valid destination addresses for an OSPFv3 message? (Choose two.)

FF02::5*

224.0.0.5

FF02::A

FE80::42*

2001:db8:acad:1::1

49. Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

FF02::5

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2*

50. What information is contained in OSPF type 3 LSAs?

networks reachable in other areas*

networks learned from other routing protocols

the router ID of the DR to all routers in the area

the router ID of an ASBR and the route to reach it

51. Refer to the exhibit.

A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*

The OSPF routing process is inactive.

The link to the new area is down.

The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.

52. Refer to the exhibit.

For the given topology, what are three results of the OSPF DR and BDR elections ? (Choose three.)

R1 is BDR for segment A.

R2 is DR for segment A.

R3 is DR for segment A.*

R4 is DR for segment B.

R5 is BDR for segment B.*

R3 is DR for segment B.*

53. Refer to the exhibit.

In this scenario, Area 40 cannot be connected directly to Area 0. Which OSPF network type must be configured in Area 1 to connect these areas?​

point-to-point

virtual link*

point-to-multipoint

nonbroadcast multiaccess

54. Refer to the exhibit.

What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?

Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.

Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.

Use the redistribute static command on R0-A.

Use the default-information originate command on ISP.

Use the default-information originate command on R0-A.*

55. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?

The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.*

R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.

The neighbor adjacency has formed.

56. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem?

Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.*

Implement the command network 192.168.2.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 on router R2.

Implement the command network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 on router R2.

Change the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.

57. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. -> adjacency database
This is the algorithm used by OSPF.  -> Shortest Path First
All the routers are in the backbone area.  -> Single-area OSPF
– not scored – 
This is where you can find the topology table.  -> link-state database
– not scored –

58. Match each OSPF router type description with its name. (Not all options are used.)

Internal routers:
Routers that have all their interfaces in the same area and have identical LSDBs.

Area border routers:
All the routers of this type maintain separate LSDBs for each area to which they connect.

Autonomous System Boundary Routers:
Routers that have at least one interface attached to an external internetwork (another autonomous system), such as a non-OSPF network.

59. Match each description to its corresponding LSA type. (Not all options are used.)

Type 1 => generated by all routers and flooded within an area

Type 2 => generated by the DR on a multiaccess segment and flooded within an area

Type 3 => generated by ABRs and sent between areas

Type 4 => generated by ABRs and sent between areas to advertise the location of an ASBR

60. Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)

The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually. => priority 4

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface. => priority 3

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface. => prority 2

The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any. => priority 1

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 100% Option C

1. Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?

the number of layers of the hierarchical network

the number of users on the access layer

the role of the malfunctioning device*

the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer

2. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.*

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

3. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to build a routing table*

ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput

ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself

ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)

4. What are two reasons to install a single 48-port fixed configuration switch, rather than two 24-port fixed configuration switches, in a wiring closet that supports two classrooms? (Choose two.)

more power provided to each port

more ports available for end devices*

higher uplink speeds

reduced power and space requirements*

reduced number of VLANs/broadcast domains

5. What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

HTTP access to the device

a terminal emulation client*

Telnet or SSH access to the device

a direct connection to the console or AUX port*

a connection to an operational network interface on the device

6. Which step can be taken to ensure that a switch added to the network does not overwrite the VLAN databases on existing switches in the same VTP domain?

Change the VTP mode to client.

Reset the switch VTP revision number to 0.*

Delete any configured VLANs and reboot the switch.

Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

7. A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?

Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.*

Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.

Configure the VLANs on the new switch.

Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.

8. An administrator was troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick topology and concluded that the problem was related to the configuration of VLANs on the router subinterfaces. Which two commands can the administrator use in the router to identify the problem? (Choose two.)

show controllers

show ip interface*

show ip protocols

show running-config*

show vlan

9. Refer to the exhibit.

The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?

trunking

port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports

VLAN configuration*

router port configuration

10. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.

There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.*

VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.

VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.

This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.*

11. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Include a router in the topology.

Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*

Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

12. What is a characteristic of spanning tree?

It is enabled by default on Cisco switches.*

It has a TTL mechanism that works at Layer 2.

It prevents propagation of Layer 2 broadcast frames.

It is used to discover information about an adjacent Cisco device.

13. Refer to the exhibit.

All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)

fa0/9

fa0/10*

fa0/11

fa0/13*

fa0/20

fa0/21*

14. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

4096

32768

61440*

65535

15. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

SW1 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will get a port blocked.

SW4 will get a port blocked.*

SW3 will become the root bridge.*

SW4 will become the root bridge.

16. Which statement is true about the states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.

Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.*

Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.

It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.

17. Refer to the exhibit.

What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

alternate, root, designated, root

designated, root, alternate, root

alternate, designated, root, root*

designated, alternate, root, root

18. Refer to the exhibit.

What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)

S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.*

S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.

S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.

S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.

S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.*

19. When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a switch, three ports are shown in the forwarding state. In which two port roles could these interfaces function while in the forwarding state? (Choose two.)

disabled

designated*

root*

alternate

blocked

20. Which is a characteristic of EtherChannel?

EtherChannel uses physical ports that have been upgraded to provide a faster connection.

STP will not block redundant EtherChannel bundles between two switches.

STP treats all interfaces in a bundle as a single logical link.*

EtherChannel configuration is applied to each physical port.

21. A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.

Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.

The EtherChannel will remain functional.*

Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.

22. What are two load-balancing methods in the EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)

combination of source port and IP to destination port and IP

source IP to destination IP*

source port to destination port

combination of source MAC and IP to destination MAC and IP

source MAC to destination MAC*

23. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

SW1: on
SW2: on*

SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches

SW1: passive
SW2: active

24. Which two parameters must match on the ports of two switches to create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose two.)

MAC address

speed*

VLAN information*

PAgP mode

port ID

25. A network administrator is analyzing first-hop router redundancy protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3?

VRRPv3 is Cisco proprietary.

It supports IPv6 and IPv4 addressing.*

It works together with HSRP.

It allows load balancing between routers.

26. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator would like to implement dynamic routing within a small network environment as shown in the exhibit. Which routing protocol would be a viable solution?

EIGRP*

IGRP

BGP

RIPv1

27. What is a key distinction between classful and classless routing protocols?

Classful routing protocols are better suited for implementation in discontiguous networks.

Classful routing protocols do not send subnet mask information in their routing updates.*

Classless routing protocols are not scalable.

Classless routing protocols do not allow for route summarization.

28. What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?

The path with the least number of hops.

The path with the smallest delays.

The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.*

The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.

29. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?

R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7*

R1-R3-R2-R6-R7

R1-R2-R6-R7

R1-R4-R5-R6-R7

30. Which protocol does EIGRP use for the transportation of EIGRP packets?

User Datagram Protocol

Reliable Transport Protocol*

Real-Time Transport Protocol

Transmission Control Protocol

31. Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)

The packets are sent in response to hello packets.

The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.

The packets are sent as unicast.*

The packets require confirmation.

The packets are unreliable.*

32. What EIGRP packet type is used by EIGRP routers to discover neighbors on directly connected links?

hello*

query

update

acknowledgment

33. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?

It carries the geographical information of the organization.

It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.*

It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.

It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.

34. What two values must match between two EIGRP directly connected neighbors to establish and maintain an adjacency? (Choose two.)

metric parameters*

autonomous system number*

router ID

Area ID

hello timers

35. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*

The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.

The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.

The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.*

Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.

36. Which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?

show ip route

show interfaces*

show ip protocols

show ip interface brief

37. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.

The router uses the default route.

The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*

The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

38. A network engineer examining the operation of EIGRP on a router notices that one particular route is in an active state. What can the engineer determine about this route?

Data packets to be sent to the specified network will be forwarded on this route.

EIGRP query messages are being sent to other routers requesting paths to this network.*

The Diffusing Update Algorithm has determined a successor and a feasible successor for this route.

The EIGRP processes are still calculating the administrative distance for this route.

39. Refer to the exhibit.

What will Router1 do if it receives packets that are destined to network 2001:db8:11:100::/64?

drop the packets*

forward the packets to the gateway of last resort

send the packets out interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

send the packets out interface Serial 0/0/0

40. How are externally learned EIGRP routes identified in the routing table?

EX*

O1 E

D

*

41. A network administrator is configuring EIGRP load balancing with the commands:

Router(config)# router eigrp 1
Router(config-router)# variance 3
Router(config-router)# end

What is a direct result of entering these commands?

Up to three equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.

Up to three unequal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.

No matter whether the metric is equal or unequal, up to three routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.

Any feasible successor routes to the same destination network with a metric, equal to or less than 3 times that of the successor, will be installed in the routing table.*

42. By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?

2

4*

16

32

43. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces

when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*

when a router has less than five active interfaces

when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

44. What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

to send specifically requested link-state records

to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them*

to ensure database synchronization between routers

to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

45. What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence?

full*

two-way

loading

established

46. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF Area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

47. How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface

the lowest MAC address on an active interface

the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*

the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface

48. Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

FF02::5

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2

2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2

FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538*

49. What does an OSPF area contain?

routers that share the same router ID

routers whose SPF trees are identical

routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs*

routers that share the same process ID

50. What are the only two roles that permit an OSPF router to be configured for summarization? (Choose two.)

backbone router

internal router

designated router

area border router*

autonomous system boundary router*

51. Which routing table descriptor is used to identify the OSPF networks advertised by type 1 LSAs?

O E2

O E1

O IA

O*

52. What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)

ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.

Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.*

ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.*

Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.

Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.

53. Refer to the exhibit.

What are three resulting DR and BDR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)

R2 is BDR for segment A.*

R4 is BDR for segment B.*

R5 is DR for segment B.*

R1 is DR for segment A.

R3 is DR for segment B.

R3 is DBR for segment B.

54. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?

to activate the OSPF neighboring process

to influence the DR/BDR election process*

to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process

to streamline and speed up the convergence process

55. Which statement describes a characteristic of OSPF external routes?​

The difference between type 1 and type 2 is in the way the cost of the route is being calculated.*

Type 1 and type 2 external routes in IPv4 networks are represented in the routing table by EX1 and EX2, respectively.

A type 2 route is always preferred over a type 1 route for the same destination.

The cost of a type 1 route is always the external cost, regardless of the interior cost to reach that route.

56. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. PC1 is unable to communicate with PC2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Add the network 192.168.255.2 0.0.0.0 area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network 192.168.255.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command.

Add the passive-interface S0/0 command to router R1.

Add the network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command.

Add the network 192.168.255.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network 192.168.255.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command.*

57. Which command can be used by an administrator to display a list of interfaces that are enabled for OSPFv3?

show ipv6 ospf​

show ipv6 neighbor​

show ipv6 route ospf

show ipv6 protocols​*

58. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

Each router learns about its own directly connected networks. => Step 1

Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks. => Step 2

Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link => Step 3

Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database => Step 4

Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best => Step 5

59. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

adjacency database => This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. 
Shortest Path First => This is the algorithm used by OSPF.
Single-area OSPF => All the routers are in the backbone area.
– not scored – 
link-state database => This is where you can find the topology table.
– not scored –

60. Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)

The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually. => priority 4

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface. => priority 3

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface. => prority 2

The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any. => priority 1

CCNA3 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers

1. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

Immediately replace a nonfunctioning module, service ,or device on a network.

Purchase backup equipment for every network device at the distribution layer.

Implement STP PortFast between the switches on the network.

Add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network.*

2. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.*

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

3. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

4. How does implementing STP allow for a scalable network design?

It eliminates Layer 2 loops from redundant links.*

It provides failover services when duplicate network equipment is used.

It filters broadcasts and other undesirable traffic from the network.

It prevents local traffic from propagating to other parts of the network.

5. Which model and which two characteristics would be more likely to be considered in purchasing an access layer switch, as compared to buying switches that operate at the other layers of the Cisco hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)

Catalyst 2960*

Catalyst 4500X

number of ports*

PoE*

EtherChannel

RSTP

6. What is the function of ASICs in a multilayer switch?

They provide power to devices such as IP phones and wireless access points through Ethernet ports.

They streamline forwarding of IP packets in a multilayer switch by bypassing the CPU.*

They prevent Layer 2 loops by disabling redundant links between switches.

They aggregate multiple physical switch ports into a single logical port.

7. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

connect remote networks*

provide Power over Ethernet to devices

connect users to the network

provide data traffic security*

provide a high-speed network backbone

8. Which two VTP modes allow for the creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.)

client

slave

server*

transparent*

master

distribution

9. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

Reboot the switch.*

Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.

Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.

Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.

Select the correct VTP mode and version.*

Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.*

10. The network administrator wants to configure a switch to pass VLAN update information to other switches in the domain but not update its own local VLAN database. Which two steps should the administrator perform to achieve this? (Choose two.)

Reset the VTP counters.

Configure VTP version 1 on the switch.

Configure the VTP mode of the switch to transparent.*

Verify that the switch has a higher configuration revision number.

Configure the switch with the same VTP domain name as other switches in the network.*

11. Refer to the exhibit.

The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.

There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​*

The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​

12. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

The interface vlan <vlan number> command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.

They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.

They are used for point-to-multipoint links.

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*

13. Refer to the exhibit.

A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252*

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# ip routing*

14. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?

S1

S2*

S3

S4

15. What two STP features are incorporated into Rapid PVST+? (Choose two.)

UplinkFast*

PortFast

BPDU guard

BPDU filter

BackboneFast*

loop guard

16. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches. What will be a result of entering these commands?

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0.

S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576.

S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192.*

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596.

17. Refer to the exhibit.

If the switch has been configured for PVST+ mode, what command output would replace the question marks?

ieee*

pvst

pvst+

rstp

18. Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links

dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches*

19. Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?

Multilink PPP

DTP

LACP*

PAgP

20. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. If STP is running, what will be the end result?

The switches will load balance and utilize both EtherChannels to forward packets.

STP will block one of the redundant links.*

The resulting loop will create a broadcast storm.

Both port channels will shutdown.

21. What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.

All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*

All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.*

All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.

Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

22. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.

The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.

The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.

The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.*

23. A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?

FHRP

GLBP*

HSRP

VRRP

24. Which dynamic routing protocol uses hop count to calculate metric value?

RIP*

EIGRP

OSPF

IS-IS

25. Which two commands are used in the implementation of a dynamic IPv4 routing protocol? (Choose two.)

ip route

network*

line

router*

interface

26. Which statement describes the Autonomous System number that is used in EIGRP?

It defines the reliability of the EIGRP routing protocol.

It identifies the priority of the networks to be included in update packets.

It is associated with the global Autonomous System number that is assigned by IANA.

It specifies the EIGRP routing process on a router.*

27. What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

to provide increased network security*

to shut down unused interfaces

to avoid unnecessary update traffic*

to mitigate attacks coming from the interfaces

to exclude interfaces from load balancing

28. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator issues the show ip protocols command. Based on the exhibited output, what can be concluded?

The EIGRP K values are default values.*

R1 receives routes to the network 192.168.1.0/24 and 10.0.0.0/24.

The no auto-summary command is not applied for the EIGRP operation.

Up to 4 routes of different metric values to the same destination network will be included in the routing table.

29. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has issued the show ip eigrp neighbors command. What can be concluded from the output?

There is no incoming EIGRP message at this moment.

The first EIGRP neighbor R1 learned about has the IP address 10.10.10.2.*

An EIGRP neighbor with IP address 10.10.10.14 is connected to R1 via serial interface 0/1/0.

If R1 does not receive a Hello packet in 4 seconds from the neighbor with IP 10.10.10.18, it will declare the neighbor is down.

30. Which two metric weights are set to one by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose two.)

k1*

k2

k3*

k4

k5

k6

 

31. Which feature of the EIGRP routing protocol can provide fast re-convergence without DUAL recomputation in the event of a route failure?

having a successor route

having a feasible successor route*

having a route in the passive state

having a route in the active state

32. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured?

no shutdown

eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100

ipv6 unicast-routing*

ipv6 eigrp 100

ipv6 cef

33. Refer to the exhibit.

What will Router1 do if it receives packets that are destined to network 172.16.4.0/24?

drop the packets*

forward the packets to the gateway of last resort

send the packets out interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

send the packets to network 0.0.0.0

34. In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum-paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?​

global configuration mode

interface configuration mode

privileged mode

router configuration mode*

35. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command will configure unequal-cost load balancing with EIGRP on the HQ router?

maximum-paths 1

maximum-paths 2

variance 1

variance 2*

36. Refer to the exhibit.

Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?

The AS number does not match on R1 and R2.*

The automatic summarization is enabled on R1 and R2.

The IPv4 address of Fa0/0 interface of R1 has a wrong IP address.​

There is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1.​

37. For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (Choose three.)

any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication

any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive*

the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers

any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process*

networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol*

the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors

38. Refer to the exhibit.

The routing table on R2 does not include all networks that are attached to R1. The network administrator verifies that the network statement is configured to include these two networks. What is a possible cause of the issue?

The AS number does not match between R1 and R2.

The network statements should include the wild card mask.

The no auto-summary command is missing in the R1 configuration.*

The interfaces that are connected to these two networks are configured as passive interfaces.

39. A network administrator is troubleshooting the EIGRP routing between two routers, R1 and R2. The problem is found to be that only some, but not all networks attached to R1 are listed in the routing table of router R2. What should the administrator investigate on router R1 to determine the cause of the problem?

Does the AS number match the AS number on R2?

Does the hello interval setting match the hello interval on R2?

Do the network commands include all the networks to be advertised?*

Is the interface connected to R2 configured as a passive interface?

40. What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?

Hello, LSAck, LSU, LSR, DBD

LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSU, LSR

Hello, DBD, LSR, LSU, LSAck*

LSU, LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSR

 

41. Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?

0.0.0.32

0.0.0.31*

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.223

 

42. What is the reason for a network engineer to alter the default reference bandwidth parameter when configuring OSPF?

to more accurately reflect the cost of links greater than 100 Mb/s*

to increase the speed of the link

to force that specific link to be used in the destination route

to enable the link for OSPF routing

 

43. Which OSPFv3 function works differently from OSPFv2?

metric calculation

hello mechanism

OSPF packet types

authentication*

election process

 

44. Refer to the exhibit.

Which address will R1 use as the source address for all OSPFv3 messages that will be sent to neighbors?

FE80::1*

2001:DB8:ACAD:A::1

FF02::1

FF02::5

 

45. What address type will OSPFv3 use to form adjacencies to neighboring routers?

the all-link router multicast

the global unicast of the interface

the all OSPF router multicast

the link-local address of the interface*

46. On what type of OSPF router is interarea route summarization configured?

intra-area routers

backbone routers

ABRs*

ASBRs

47. Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across the entire OSPF domain?

type 1

type 2

type 3

type 4

type 5*

48. Which OSPF LSA type is only used in multiaccess and NBMA networks?

type 1

type 2*

type 3

type 4

49. Refer to the exhibit.

What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.

This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*

This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

50. Refer to the exhibit.

What are three results for the DR and BDR elections for the given topologies? (Choose three.)

R4 is DR for segment B.

R2 is BDR for segment A.

R3 is DR for segment A.

R1 is DR for segment A.*

R3 is BDR for segment A.*

R5 is BDR for segment B.*

51. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?

to activate the OSPF neighboring process

to influence the DR/BDR election process*

to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process

to streamline and speed up the convergence process

52. Refer to the exhibit.

Suppose that routers B, C, and D have a default priority, and router A has a priority 0. Which conclusion can be drawn from the DR/BDR election process?​

Router A will become the DR and router D will become the BDR.​

If the DR fails, the new DR will be router B.*

If a new router with a higher priority is added to this network, it will become the DR.

If the priority of router C is changed to 255, then it will become the DR.

53. Refer to the exhibit.

On which router or routers would a default route be statically configured in a corporate environment that uses single area OSPF as the routing protocol?

ISP

R0-A*

ISP and R0-A

R0-A, R0-B, and R0-C

R0-B and R0-C

ISP, R0-A, R0-B, and R0-C

54. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem?

Remove the FastEthernet0/0 passive interface configuration on router R1.

Add the command network 192.168.20.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 on router R1.

Add the command network 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 on router R1.

Change the IP address on S0/0 of router R2 to 192.168.20.2.*

55. An administrator is troubleshooting an adjacency issue between two OSPFv3 routers. Which two neighbor states indicate a stable adjacency between the routers? (Choose two.)

loading

2way*

full*

exstart

exchange

56. Fill in the blank.

In RSTP, BPDU frames are sent every “2” seconds by default.

57. Fill in the blank.

What is the acronym of an IGP, link-state, classless routing protocol besides IS-IS? “OSPF

58. Fill in the blank.

EIGRP keeps feasible successor routes in the “topology” table.

59. Fill in the blank.

By default, EIGRP is able to use up to “50” percent of the bandwidth for EIGRP messages on an EIGRP-enabled interface.

60. Match the switched LAN problem to the correct symptom. (Not all options are used.)

61. Match the port state with its condition. (Not all options are used.)

62. Match the step sequence to the multiarea OSPF route calculation process. (Not all options are used.)

63. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which message was displayed on the web server?

You’ve made it!*

Congratulations!

Wonderful work!

Work done!

CCNA 3 v6.0 Pretest Exam Answers 100%

1. What route would have the lowest administrative distance?

a directly connected network*

a static route

a route received through the EIGRP routing protocol

a route received through the OSPF routing protocol

2. Refer to the exhibit.

What command would be used to configure a static route on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 remote network?

ipv6 route ::/0 serial0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::1

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::2*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1::/65 2001:db8:1:3::1

3. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus

provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies*

distributes access to end users

represents the network edge

4. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)

Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.

Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.

Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.*

Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.*

Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.*

For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.

5. Refer to the exhibit.

How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.*

SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

6. Which address prefix range is reserved for IPv4 multicast?

240.0.0.0 – 254.255.255.255

224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255*

169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255

127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255

7. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?

In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.

Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.

Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.*

On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.

8. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)

security*

a reduction in the number of trunk links

cost reduction*

end user satisfaction

improved IT staff efficiency*

no required configuration

9. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

directly-connected routes

local routes

remote routes*

C and L source routes

10. Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?

router on a stick*

routing via a multilayer switch

routing for the management VLAN

legacy inter-VLAN routing

11. Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 switch

Layer 3 switch*

hub

repeater

router*

12. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.

FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS​.

RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.*

NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.

ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.*

13. Refer to the exhibit.

In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

access

trunk*

native

auto

14. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

to identify the broadcast address of the destination network

to identify the host address of the destination host

to identify faulty frames

to identify the network address of the destination network*

15. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?​

FEC0::/10​

FDEE::/7​

FE80::/10*

FF00::/8​

16. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP*

a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network*

17. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?​

all IPv6 enabled devices across the network​

all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link​

all IPv6 DHCP servers​

all IPv6 configured routers on the local link​*

18. A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic?

a 192.168.14.0/26 route that is learned via RIP*

a 192.168.14.0/24 route that is learned via EIGRP

a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via OSPF

a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via RIP

19. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

20. What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent?

subnetwork address

multicast address

unicast address

broadcast address*

21. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated.

The router is configured for SLAAC operation.*

The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.

The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0.

22. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?

256*

512

1024

4096

23. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

24. Match the DHCP message types to the order of the DHCPv4 process. (Not all options are used.)

 

25. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)

 

26. What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?

failure domain*

collision domain

broadcast domain

user domain

27. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

28. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to build a routing table*

ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput

ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself

ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)

29. A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?

Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.*

Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.

Configure the VLANs on the new switch.

Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.

30. Refer to the exhibit.

Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.

There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.*

VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.

VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.

This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.*

31. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Include a router in the topology.

Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*

Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

32. What eliminates switching loops?

hold-down timers

poison reverse

Spanning Tree Protocol*

Time to Live

VTP

33. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

SW1 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will get a port blocked.

SW4 will get a port blocked.*

SW3 will become the root bridge.*

SW4 will become the root bridge.

34. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?

R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7*

R1-R3-R2-R6-R7

R1-R2-R6-R7

R1-R4-R5-R6-R7

35. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?

It carries the geographical information of the organization.

It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.*

It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.

It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.

36. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.

The router uses the default route.

The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*

The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

37. What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

to send specifically requested link-state records

to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them*

to ensure database synchronization between routers

to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

38. Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

FF02::5

2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2

2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2

FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538*

39. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:

This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. -> adjacency database
This is the algorithm used by OSPF.  -> Shortest Path First
All the routers are in the backbone area.  -> Single-area OSPF
– not scored – 
This is where you can find the topology table.  -> link-state database
– not scored –

40. Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)

 

CCNA3 v6.0 Chapter 10 Exam Answers

1. A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

Configure the network statements.

Change the interface priority.

Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.*

Change the OSPFv2 process ID.

 

2. Refer to the exhibit.

What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose three.)

The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.*

This interface is using the default priority.

The BDR has three neighbors.

The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3

The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and the BDR.*

There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.*

 

3. Refer to the exhibit.

Which conclusion can be drawn from this OSPF multiaccess network?

​When a DR is elected all other non-DR routers become DROTHER.

​All DROTHER routers will send LSAs to the DR and BDR to multicast 224.0.0.5.

If the DR stops producing Hello packets, a BDR will be elected, and then it promotes itself to assume the role of DR.​

With an election of the DR, the number of adjacencies is reduced from 6 to 3.*

 

4. Which OSPF feature allows a remote OSPF area to participate in OSPF routing when it cannot connect directly to OSPF Area 0?

NBMA

DR/BDR

virtual link*

point-to-point connectivity

 

5. Refer to the exhibit.

What are three resulting DR and BDR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)

R3 is BDR for segment A.

R1 is DR for segment A.*

R2 is BDR for segment A.*

R3 is DR for segment A.

R4 is BDR for segment B.

R5 is BDR for segment B.*

 



 

6. When checking a routing table, a network technician notices the following entry:

O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0

What information can be gathered from this output?

This route is a propagated default route.*

The route is located two hops away.

The metric for this route is 110.

The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.

 

7. Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions can be drawn based on the output of the show ipv6 route command? (Choose two.)

Route 2001:DB8:CAFE:4::/64 is an external route advertised by an ASBR.

R2 receives default route information from another router.*

Route 2001:DB8:CAFE:B001::/64 is a route advertised by an ABR.*

Route 2001:DB8:CAFE:4::/64 is advertised by a router three hops away.

Routes 2001:DB8:CAFE:1::/64 and 2001:DB8:CAFE:3::/64 are advertised from the same router.

 

8. Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?

show ip ospf neighbor

show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0*

show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0

show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1

 

9. A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.)

no ipv6 ospf hello-interval*

no ipv6 ospf dead-interval*

ip ospf hello-interval 10

ip ospf dead-interval 40

no ipv6 ospf cost 10

no ipv6 router ospf 10

 

10. A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?

The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.

The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.

The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.*

The dead interval will not change from the default value.

 

11. Which command can be used to view the OSPF hello and dead time intervals?

show ip protocols

show ip ospf neighbor

show ip ospf interface*

show ip ospf route

 

12. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring OSPF for R1 and R2, but the adjacency cannot be established. What is the cause of the issue?

The process ID is misconfigured.

The area ID is misconfigured.*

The IP address on router R2 is misconfigured.

The interface s0/0/0 on router R2 is missing a link-local address.

 

13. Refer to the exhibit.

What the amount of time that has elapsed since the router received a hello packet?

40 seconds

10 seconds

4 seconds*

6 seconds

 

14. Which two parameters must match between neighboring OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose two.)

hello / dead timers*

process ID

router ID

IP address

network types*

cost

 

15. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers but PC1 is unable to connect to PC2. What is the most likely problem?

Interface S0/0 is configured as a passive-interface on router R2.

Interface s0/0 has not been activated for OSPFv2 on router R2.

Interface Fa0/0 is configured as a passive-interface on router R2.

Interface Fa0/0 has not been activated for OSPFv2 on router R2.*

 

16. Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.

The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.

The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.*

The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.

 

17. A network administrator is troubleshooting an OSPFv3 configuration on an IPv6 network. The administrator issues the show ipv6 protocols command. What is the purpose for this command?

to verify OSPFv3 configuration information*

to display the OSPFv3 learned routes in the routing table

to display the OSPFv3 parameters configured on an interface

to verify that the router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers

 

18. Refer to the exhibit.

Directly connected networks configured on router R1 are not being shared with neighboring routers through OSPFv3. What is the cause of the issue?

IPv6 OSPF routing is not enabled.

There is a mismatch of OSPF process ID in commands.*

The no shutdown command is missing on the interfaces.

There are no network statements for the routes in the OSPF configuration.

 

19. An administrator is troubleshooting OSPFv3 adjacency issues. Which command would the administrator use to confirm that OSPFv3 hello and dead intervals are matching between routers?​

show ipv6 ospf interface​*

show ipv6 ospf​

show ipv6 protocols​

show ipv6 ospf neighbor​

 

20. What three states are transient OPSF neighbor states that indicate a stable adjacency is not yet formed between two routers? (Choose three.)

full

exstart*

2way

exchange*

loading*

established

 

21. Match each OSPF election criterion to its sequential order for the OSPF DR and BDR election process. (Not all options are used.)

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which routers are the DR and BDR in this topology?

DR:R1 BDR:R2

DR:R6 BDR:R5

DR:R5 BDR:R3

DR:R3 BDR:R6

DR:R4 BDR:R1

DR:R3 BDR:R5*

 

23. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

A network administrator is configuring multiarea OSPFv3 on the routers. The routing design requires that the router RT1 is a DROTHER for the network in Area 0 and the DR for the network in Area 1. Check the settings and status of the routers. What can the administrator do to ensure that RT1 will meet the design requirement after all routers restart?

Restart all routers except for RT1.

Change the router ID to 5.5.5.5 on RT1.

Configure the loopback 0 interface with 6.6.6.6.

Use the ipv6 ospf priority 0 command on the interface g0/0 of RT1.

Use the ipv6 ospf priority 10 command on the interface g0/2 of RT1.*

CCNA 3 v6.0 Chapter 9 exam answers

1. What are two reasons for creating an OSPF network with multiple areas? (Choose two.)

to provide areas in the network for routers that are not running OSPF

to ensure that an area is used to connect the network to the Internet

to reduce SPF calculations*

to reduce use of memory and processor resources*

to simplify configuration

 

2. What is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?

autosummarization

the use of multiple areas*

frequent SPF calculations

the election of designated routers

3. Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose two.)

Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries.​

Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation.​*

Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system​.

Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries​.

Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas.*

4. Which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that are implemented in a multiarea OSPF network?

They usually have many local networks attached.

They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.

They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks.*

They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the LSDB.

5. What type of OSPF LSA is originated by ASBR routers to advertise external routes?

type 1

type 2

type 3

type 5*

6. What OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of the router ID of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?

type 1

type 2*

type 3

type 4

7. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface.

The routing table contains routes from multiple areas.*

To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

The routing table contains two intra-area routes.

To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface​.*

8. What routing table descriptor is used to identify OSPF summary networks that originate from an ABR?

O

O IA*

O E1

O E2

9. A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?

C

O

O E2

O IA*

10. Refer to the exhibit.

What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?

The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2.*

The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.

The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

11. Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)

Verify OSPF.

Configure OSPF.

Define the OSPF parameters.*

Gather the required parameters.*

Troubleshoot the configurations.

Define the network requirements.*

12. Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose two.)

192.168.31.0/24

192.168.33.0/24*

192.168.37.0/24

192.168.35.0/24*

192.168.36.0/24

192.168.38.0/24

13. Refer to the exhibit.

What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?

The route was manually configured.

The route was learned from within the area.

The route was learned from outside the internetwork.

The route was learned from another area.*

14. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been asked to summarize the networks shown in the exhibit as part of a multiarea OSPF implementation. All addresses are using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. What is the correct summarization for these eight networks?

10.0.4.0 255.255.0.0

10.0.0.0 255.255.240.0*

10.0.4.0 255.255.248.0

10.0.8.0 255.255.248.0

15. The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?

area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248

area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0

area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0*

area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248

16. Match each type of OSPF router to its description. (Not all options are used.)

a router in the backbone area => backbone router

a router with all its interfaces in the same area => internal router

a router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network => Autonomous System Boundary Router

a router with its interfaces attached to multiple areas => Area Border Router

17. Fill in the blank. Do not use acronyms.

OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the “designated” router to advertise routes in multiaccess networks.

18. Fill in the blank. Use a number.

An ASBR generates type “5” LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is connected to.

19. Fill in the blank. Use a number.

A type “4” LSA identifies the ASBR and provides a route to it.

20. Refer to the exhibit.

Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The “network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1” command must be issued to configure R1 for multiarea OSPF.​

21. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Why are users in the OSPF network not able to access the Internet?

The default route is not redistributed correctly from router R1 by OSPF.

The interface that is connected to the ISP router is down.

The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on routers R2 and R3.

The OSPF timers that are configured on routers R1, R2, and R3 are not compatible.

The network statement is misconfigured on router R1.*

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

What is the missing command on router R2 to establish an adjacency between routers R1 and R3? “network 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0” .

CCNA 3 Chapter 8 v6.0 exam answers

1. What is used to create the OSPF neighbor table?

adjacency database*

link-state database

forwarding database

routing table

 

2. Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence?

adjacency database

link-state database*

routing table

SPF tree

3. Which OPSF packet contains the different types of link-state advertisements?

hello

DBD

LSR

LSU*

LSAck

4. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.

They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.

They request more information about their databases.

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.*

5. What will an OSPF router prefer to use first as a router ID?

any IP address that is configured using the router-id command*

a loopback interface that is configured with the highest IP address on the router

the highest active interface IP that is configured on the router

the highest active interface that participates in the routing process because of a specifically configured network statement

6. What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)

to facilitate the establishment of network convergence

to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain*

to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full

to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router*

to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path to remote networks

7. By default, what is the OSPF cost for any link with a bandwidth of 100 Mb/s or greater?

1*

100

10000

100000000

8. Which command should be used to check the OSPF process ID, the router ID, networks the router is advertising, the neighbors the router is receiving updates from, and the default administrative distance?

show ip protocols*

show ip ospf neighbor

show ip ospf

show ip ospf interface

9. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)

a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used

mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers*

mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces*

use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces

one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port

10. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

FE80::1*

FF02::5*

FF02::6*

FF02::A

FF02::1:2

2001:db8:cafe::1

11. A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?

The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64.

The router will be assigned a router ID of 64.

The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s.

The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.*

12. When a network engineer is configuring OSPFv3 on a router, which command would the engineer issue immediately before configuring the router ID?

ipv6 ospf 10 area 0

ipv6 router ospf 10*

interface serial 0/0/1

clear ipv6 ospf process

13. Single area OSPFv3 has been enabled on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 20 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router?

ipv6 ospf 0 area 0

ipv6 ospf 20 area 20

ipv6 ospf 0 area 20

ipv6 ospf 20 area 0*

14. What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?

the highest MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-48 process

the FE80::/10 prefix and the EUI-48 process

the MAC address of the serial interface, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process

an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process*

15. Which command will verify that a router that is running OSPFv3 has formed an adjacency with other routers in its OSPF area?

show running-configuration

show ipv6 ospf neighbor*

show ipv6 route ospf

show ipv6 interface brief

16. Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?

show ip route ospf

show ip route

show ipv6 route

show ipv6 route ospf*

17. Match the OSPF state with the order in which it occurs. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
second state  -> Init state
– not scored –
seventh state  -> Full state
fifth state  ->  Exchange state
first state  ->  Down state
fourth state  ->  Exstart state
– not scored –
third state  ->  Two-way state
sixth state  ->  Loading state

18. Match each OSPF packet type to how it is used by a router. (Not all options are used.)

establish and maintain adjacencies = hello packet

advertise new information = link-state update packet

compare local topology to that sent by another router = database description packet

query another router for additional information = link-state request packet

19. By order of precedence, match the selection of router ID for an OSPF-enable router to the possible router ID options. (Not all option are used.)

loopback interface address 10.1.1.1 = Third precedence

Serial interface IP address 192.168.10.1 = Fourth precedence

Configured router ID 1.1.1.1 = First precedence

Loopback interface IP address 172.16.1.1 = Second precedence

20. Match the information to the command that is used to obtain the information. (Not all options are used.)

show ip ospf neighbor = Neighbor ID of 3.3.3.3

show ip ospf = Routing Process “ospf 10” with ID 1.1.1.1

show ip protocols = Routing Protocol is “ospf 10”

show interface serial 0/0/0 = BW 1544 Kbit/sec

21. Fill in the blank.

OSPF uses “cost” as a metric.

 

22. Fill in the blank.

The election of a DR and a BDR takes place on “multiaccess” networks, such as Ethernet networks.

23. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task.

What message is displayed on http://www.ciscoville.com?

Finished!

Completion!*

Success!

Converged!

CCNA3 v6.0 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit.

Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through the EIGRP routing protocol. Which statement is true about the implementation of summarization in this network?

Automatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24 network.

Automatic summarization is disabled on R3.*

Automatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers​.

Automatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis.

2. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is disabled? (Choose two.)

10.1.0.0/16

10.1.2.0/24*

10.1.4.0/24

10.1.4.0/28

10.1.4.0/30*

3. What is the purpose of a Null0 route in the routing table?

to redistribute external routes into EIGRP

to prevent routing loops*

to act as a gateway of last resort

to prevent the router from sending EIGRP packets

4. Refer to the exhibit.

All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary networks will be calculated on R3? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.0/30

192.168.10.0/30

192.168.10.0/24*

172.16.3.0/24

172.16.0.0/16*

5. Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.)

It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table.

It increases the size of routing updates.

It reduces the frequency of routing updates.*

It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork.*

It improves reachability in discontiguous networks.

It decreases the number of entries in the routing table.*

6. Assuming that EIGRP is enabled on both routers and automatic summarization is enabled, what must be configured to ensure that R1 will be able to reach the 2.2.2.0/24 network?

Use the command no auto-summary to disable automatic summarization.*

Use the command ip address-summary to ensure that R1 recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.

EIGRP supports VLSM and will automatically recognize the 2.2.2.0 network.

EIGRP does not support VLSM and therefore cannot be used with discontiguous networks.

7. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is supported by the output?

A static default route has been manually configured on this router.

Summarization of routes has been manually configured.

A default route is being learned through an external process.*

The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.

8. Which two steps must be taken in order to send a default route to other EIGRP routers? (Choose two.)

Ensure automatic summarization is disabled.

Configure a loopback address.

Configure a default route.*

Redistribute the default route.*

Configure a router ID.

9. What is the administrative distance of externally learned EIGRP routes?

170*

90

110

120

10. Two routers, R1 and R2, share a 64 kb/s link. An administrator wants to limit the bandwidth used by EIGRP between these two routers to 48 kb/s. Which command is used on both routers to configure the new bandwidth setting?

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 48

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 64 48

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 64

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 75*

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 75 100

11. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two conclusions can be drawn from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)

The configuration supports equal-cost load balancing.

The configuration supports unequal-cost load balancing.*

Any EIGRP-learned route with a metric less than 3 times the successor metric will be installed in the local routing table.*

Any EIGRP-learned route with a metric equal to 3 times the successor metric will be installed in the local routing table.

The network statements require subnet masks to prevent autosummarization.

12. Which routing protocol supports unequal-cost load balancing on Cisco routers?

IS-IS

EIGRP*

OSPF

RIPv2

13. By default, how many equal-cost routes to the same destination network will EIGRP install in the routing table?

2

4*

6

8

14. What is the default maximum amount of bandwidth that can be used for exchanging EIGRP messages on an EIGRP-configured interface?

50%*

10%

100%

75%

15. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator wants EIGRP on Router1 to load balance traffic to network 2001:db8:11:10::/64 across two interfaces. Currently traffic is using only interface GigabitEthernet0/1. A second route, not in the routing table, is available with a metric of 264000. What value is needed in the variance command to make EIGRP put the second route into the routing table?

1

4

10

11*

16. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?

on a per-packet basis

on a per-interface basis

on a per-path-load basis

on a per-destination basis*

17. Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic summarization is enabled?

show ip eigrp interfaces

show ip protocols*

show ip interface brief

show ip eigrp neighbors

18. Refer to the exhibit.

After the configuration shown is applied on router R1, the exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0 interface. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.

The hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a neighbor relationship from forming.

The network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface serial 0/1/0.

The IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1 serial 0/1/0 is incorrect.*

The networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1 are overlapping.

19. Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.

What action should be taken to solve this problem?

Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.

Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.

Configure the same hello interval between the routers.

Configure both routers with the same EIGRP autonomous system number.*

20. Refer to the exhibit.

Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?

because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1

because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP*

because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect

because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1

21. In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause inconsistent routing in a network?

when there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers

when there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers

when the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS​ numbers

when the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous networks with automatic summarization enabled*

22. Refer to the exhibit.

Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24 network. Using the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity problem?

The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0.

The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.

The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process.*

The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.

23. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The “passive-interface” command causes an EIGRP router to stop sending hello packets through an interface.

24. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The command to propagate the default route from the router Border to the rest of the EIGRP domain is Border(config-router)# “redistribute static” .

25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

R1 and R2 could not establish an EIGRP adjacency. What is the problem?​

EIGRP is down on R1.*

EIGRP is down on R2.

R1 Fa0/0 and R2 Fa0/0 are on different networks.

R1 Fa0/0 is not configured to send hello packets.

R1 Fa0/0 link local address is wrong.

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2018