CCNA Wireless Chapter 10 and 11 Exam Answers

The CUWN has 5 elements, which are…
1) Client devices
2) Mobility platform
3) Network unification
4) Network management
5) Unified advanced services

Cisco compatible extensions devices have:
1) Wireless mobility
2) QoS
3) NW management
4) Enhanced security

NW unification is…
A migration path into routing/switching platforms via WLC’s

The WLAN management interface for Cisco is called ..
WCS: Wireless control system

The control plane is…
AES-CCM encrypted

The data plane is..
Not encrypted

In a LWAPP header, a data message is C code _ and a control message is C code _
0, 1

Layer 3 LWAPP data traffic uses ports…
UDP src:1024 dst:12222

Layer 3 LWAPP control traffic uses ports…
UDP src:1024 dst:12223

4 stages of AP association to a WLC:
1) Discovery phase
2) Join phase
3) Authorization phase
4) Configuration phase

What LWAPP mode is attempted first?
L2

Cisco prefers L3 discovery process over L2

The management IP of a WLC is handed out via…
Option 43 in a DHCP handout

For an AP to authenticate to a WLC, a _______________ is needed
x.509 certificate

What 2 types of x.509 certificates are there?
1) MIC: manufacturer installed cert
2) SSC: self-signed cert

If authentication is successsful, a _____________ is sent from the WLC to the LAP
Join response

CCNA Wireless Chapter 9 Exam Answers

In a wireless model, frames generally go from a lightweight AP to a WLC

A WLC is…
A WiLAN controller

Active scanning is…
When a client sends probes out

Passive scanning is..
When a client waits for beacons

What comes first, the auth request or the assoc request frame when a client attempts to connect to an AP?
The auth request comes first

Briefly count off the steps for wireless association to an AP
1) Client sends probe
2) AP sends probe response
3) Client sends auth request
4) AP sends auth response
5) Success message sent
6) Association request sent by client
7) Association response sent by AP
8) Client uses RSSI and SNR to determine what speed to send at

Management frames are sent at the …
Lowest possible rate

Data headers are sent at the…
Lowest possible rate

Actual data is sent at the…
Highest possible rate

If a wireless client is sending to a host on a different subnet and has never done so before, it will need to perform the ___ operation to find the ____ address of the __________ gateway
ARP, MAC, default

In an ARP frame sent from a client, the source address is the…the destination address is the…and the receiving address is the…
Host sending ARP
Broadcast because its an ARP broadcast
AP

What interframe space do ACK frames use?
SIFS – short interframe space

The LWAPP adds a ____________ _____________ frames travelling from the AP to the WLC
6 byte header

Who translates 802.11 frames into 802.3 frames in a centralized wireless setup?
The wireless LAN controller

The two main types of WLAN implementation methods are:
1) Distributed (autonomous AP’s)
2) Centralized (LAP + WLC)

WLC’s are responsible for… (5 things)
1) Security policies
2) Intrusion prevention
3) RF management
4) QoS
5) Mobility

LAP’s handle real-time MAC layer services while WLC’s handle non-real-time MAC layer services

Non real time MAC layer services handled by the WLC include:
1) Authentication
2) Association and reassociation (aka mobility)
3) Frame translation and bridging

Public networks broadcast their SSID in a beacon
But private networks wait for probe-requests

In a distributed setup, the address fields are setup as follows in the 802.11 frame:
Field 1: AP = receiving address
Field 2: Source address
Field 3: Destination address
Field 4: Unused

The Ethertype of LWAPP is…
0xBBBB

LWAPP can operate at ______ or ______
Layer 2 or layer 3

If LWAPP is operating at L2, do AP’s need IP’s?
No.

If LWAPP is operating at L3, do AP’s need IP’s?
Yes.

The trunking protocol is called…
802.1q

The trunking protocol adds a ____________ to 802.3 frames
4 byte header

The header added by 802.1q contains what 2 things
1) TPID
2) TCI

The TCI contains…
User priority, 1 bit canonical format, 12 bit VLAN ID

What are the reserved VLAN ID’s?
1 = default
1002 = FDDI
1003 = TR
1004 = FDDINET
1005 = TRNET

CCNA Wireless Chapter 7 Exam Answers

MAC layer provides 3 services, which are
1) Asynchronous data service
2) Security services
3) Media access control

With asynchronous data service…
Peer LLC’s exchange MSDU’s

With security services, there are 3 options:
Authentication, WEP or 802.11i

Every frame contains 3 things:
1) MAC header
2) Variable length frame body
3) FCS

The frame body is specific to…
1 of the 3 frame types in 802.11

How long are CRC’s?
4 bytes

The 3 802.11 frame types are:
1) Data
2) Control
3) Management

What do control frames do in 802.11?
Send CTS/RTS, ACK etc.

What do management frames do in 802.11?
Send associations and beacons

Management frames are ______________ to upper layer protocols
Not forwarded

802.11 is a CSMA/CA network, meaning it uses physical and virtual carrier sense mechanisms

Virtual carrier sense mechanisms….
Announce the use of media (NAV)

NAV stands for:
Network allocation vector

The distributed coordination function simply means the exchange of…
RTS’s and CTS’s

Both RTS’s and CTS’s contain a…
Duration field

The duration field is…
The time to tx data frame, ack frame, and inter fame spaces

Four diff. types of IFS’s:
1) SIFS: short inter frame space
2) PIFS: point coordination function inter frame space
3) DIFS: distributed coordination function inter frame space
4) EIFS: extended inter frame space

What does PCF do?
Creates contention free access to wireless network for tx devices, only available in infrastructure networks because AP is the polling master and central point of this optional method of access

The MAC layer can intentially _________ MSDU’s
reorder

When the MAC layer is reordering MSDU’s, what type of frames get priority?
unicast

The frame control field in the MAC header is how long
2 bytes

The protocol version field would be what for the current version?
00

The type bits would be set to what for each type of MAC frame
1) 00 – mgmt
2) 01- ctrl
3) 10 – data

The subtype field in the frame control field consists of…
Additional info about whatever frame type has been specified in the type section

The last half of the frame control field is…
1 byte of flags

If the destination is the distribution system, the To DS bit would be set to…
1

If the source is the distribution system, the From DS bit would be set to…
1

If a wireless distribution system is in play, the From and To DS bits are set to
1

If an ad-hoc network is in play, the From and To DS bits are set to
0

If the More flag is set to 1, what does this mean?
It means the MPDU is too large

What does 802.11 do with MPDU’s which are too large
It can fragment them like TCP does

If the retry flag is set to 1…
The frame has been transmitted before

If the power management flag is set to 1, the station is in
Power save mode

If the more data flag is set to 1….
The station is telling the receiver that the transmission is not complete and it should not enter power save mode

If the protected frame flag is set to 1…
The body is encrypted

If the order flag is set to 1…
An upper layer protocol requested strict order transmission, meaning the MAC layer will not reorder anything

The duration field has 2 functions:
1) Remaining duration
2) AID (association ID)

In the duration field, if bit 15 is 0 the field is…
The remaining duration

In the duration field, if bit 15 is 1 the field is…
The AID of the txing station

There are ___ address fields in an 802.11 frame
4

Data frames use how many address fields in an 802.11 frame?
3 or 4

Control and management frames can use as little as 1 address field in an 802.11 frame

The first 3 bytes of a MAC addr =
The OID of the vendor

The last 3 bytes of a MAC addr =
The unique ID of the MAC entity

5 types of addr’s in 802.11:
1) BSSID (ID’s boundaries)
2) Src
3) Dst (final dst)
4) Tx addr (last to tx)
5) Rx addr (next to rx)

The sequence control field has 2 subfields which are:
1) Fragment # (4 bits)
2) Frame seq # (12 bits)

The max frame body size for unencrypted frames is…
2304 bytes

The max frame body size for encrypted frames is…
2346 bytes

CCNA Wireless Chapter 6 Exam Answers

802.11e is…
QoS standard for WLANs

802.11h is…
Transmit power management
Changes transmit power to avoid creating interference for other devices

802.11i is…
Security standard

The original 802.11 standard used…
FHSS and DSSS to achieve 1 and 2 mbps

802.11 is a ___________ standard
layer 2 standard

802.11 is focussed on the delivery of…
MSDU’s between peer LLC devices

802.11 defines…
MAC and PHY sublayer characteristics

The 2 lesser used 802.11 standards are…
802.11ac – bonded channel 802.11n
802.11ad – WiGig 60ghz ISM band

LLC sublayer makes 802.11 look like…
every other L2 protocol to other high level protocols

The MAC layer ________, but the LLC layer __________
changes, stays the same

LLC is independent of…
1) topology
2) trans medium
3) MAC techniques used

LLC provides 3 basic services:
1) Unack’d connectionless
2) Ack’d conn-oriented
3) Ack’d connectionless

The 3 purposes of control frames are…
1) Information
2) Supervisory
3) Unnumbered

A 0 in the IG header bit means
individual address

A 1 in the IG header bit means
group address

A 0 in the CR header bit means
command

A 1 in the CR header bit means
response

In control frames, what does 00 signify?
Receive ready

In control frames, what does 01 signify?
Reject

In control frames, what does 10 signify?
Receiver not ready

In control frames, what does 11 signify?
Undefined

STA’s are generally not a _______
Fixed location

STA’s can be ___________ in 802.11, but not 802.3
Hidden from eachother

802.11 can handle 2 types of stations…
Mobile and portable

In 802.11 context, mobile means… and portable means….
Mobile means device accesses LAN in motion
Portable means device can move but is stationary upon accessing LAN

The PLCP… (PHY layer definition)
Maps MAC sub layer data units to a framing format

The PMD…(PHY layer definition)
Defines characteristics of tx/rx through wireless medium

The PLME…(PHY layer definition)
Manages local PHY functions with MAC management entity

4 speeds of 802.11b
1,2,5.5 and 11mbps

802.11b uses DSSS and CCK

The chipping rate of 802.11b is…
11mhz

802.11b uses the same PLCP as
The original 802.11

Total number of 802.11b channels…
14

Actual allowed number of channels for 802.11b for each country:
US: 11
ETSI: 13
JAPAN: All 14

Power levels for 802.11b…
US: 36dbm
ETSI: 20dbm

In 802.11b, channels 1.6 and 11 are referred to as..
Set 1

In 802.11b, channels 2,3,4,5,7,8,9,10 are referred to as…
Set 2

Channels 1, 6, and 11 exact frequencies are…
2412, 2439, and 2462 mhz

802.11a has how many channels
8

802.11a operates at what throughput potentially…
54mbps

Does 802.11a have any backwards compatibility?
No.

OFDM divides…
Communication channel into equally spaced frequency bands

OFDM creates ____ subcarriers each at _____ distance from eachother
52, 312.5khz

How many OFDM subcarriers are for data? and for syncing?
48, 4

OFDM is less sensitive to ________ than DSSS
Multipath interference

Four 802.11a modulation techniques…
BPSK
QPSK
16QAM
64QAM

802.11g throughput…
54mbps @ 2.4ghz

What is used for 20mbps+ connections in 802.11g?
OFDM

What is used for speeds under 20mbps in 802.11g?
CCK

What is protection mode?
B clients on a G network are protected from OFDM which causes a significant decrease in throughput of 802.11g

Max possible throughput of 802.11n?
600mbps

802.11n operates at…
2.4 and 5ghz

2 techniques for 802.11n
1) MIMO – uses maximum ratio combining
2) Channel bonding
3) Frame aggregation – multiple LLC’s put into one MAC frame

3 legacy modes of 802.11n…
1) greenfield (HT) – assumes no legacy devices
2) Legacy mode (non-HT) – 20mhz channels only, no channel bonding
3) HT mixed mode – RTS/CTS must be a/g format

802.11h is required by…
ETSI for 5ghz range

2 main features of 802.11h…
1) Dynamic frequency selection to avoid interference
2) Transmit control power – minimizes interference on other systems

CCNA Wireless Chapter 3, 4 and 5 Exam Answers

1.Wavelength can be described as…
The distance between successive crests of a wave

2.What is the wavelength of AM radio waves?
400-500M

3.What is the wavelength of satellite waves?
1MM

4.As frequency increases, distance travelled
Decreases

5. 1mhz is 1 million cycles per second

6. 1ghz is 1 billion cycles per second

7. Gain provided by antennae helps to cancel out ___________ from cabling
Loss

8.The EIRP calculation is…
EIRP = transmitter O/P power – cable loss + antenna gain

9.Free path loss is a result of attenuation and not interference

10. As amplitude increases range increases

11.Reduction of amplitude is aka absorption

12.Absorption creates heat

13.The main issue presented by reflection is Multi path interference

14.What is multipath interference?
When two copies of the same signal arrive out of phase with eachother, and weaken or cancel eachother out

15.What is scattering
When a signal is reflected by objects which are reflective but have jagged edges

16.What is refraction
The changing or bending of a wave as it passes through something of a different density

17.Dryness refracts signals away from earth

18.Humidity refracts signals towards earth

19.RSSI is received signal strength indicator

20.A potential replacement for RSSI is receive channel power indicator

21.What is SNR?
Signal to noise ratio, how much stronger a received signal is than the underlying noise, it is measured in dB

22.What is link budget?
Value which accounts for gains/losses between tx and rx

23.What is the link budget equation?
Received power (dBm) = (tx power + gains – losses)

24.3 types of polarization for antennae are:
1) Vertical
2) Horizontal
3) Circular

25.In an electromagnetic field, the magnetic field is perpendicular  to the electric field

26.Cisco antennae all have vertical polarization

27.What is diversity?
The use of two antennae for each radio to increase the odds of a better signal

28.What has to be the same about each antennae in a diversity scenario?
Their orientation

29.Diversity is used to fight…
Multi path interference issues

30. 2 main types of antennae are
1) Directional
2) Omnidirectional

31. The h-plane of an antenna is aka
The azimuth

32.The e-plane shows how a signal would propagate vertically

33.The 2.2 dBi dipole antenna is aka the rubber ducky antenna

34.The loss incurred by a cable is usually referred to as the cable loss specification

35.3 types of antenna connectors are…
1) RP-TNC
2) N-connector
3) SMA (2 types)

36.2 subtypes of SMA connectors are
RP-SMA and SMA-RS

37.Attenuators reduce signal

38.Amplifiers add active gain to compensate for cable loss

39.Active gain means gain is added without focus change

40.What shunts lightning surges before they reach the wired LAN lightning arrestors

41.Do lightning arrestors protected against direct strikes?
no

42.What are used to send a signal in two different directions?
Splitters

43.The range of a WPAN would be..
<5-10m, or 20 feet

44.WPAN’s use the 2.4ghz spectrum

45.Bluetooth is an example of a WPAN

46.Bluetooth uses what for an emission method
FHSS

47.Generally, clients in a WLAN are _______ or less from the access point
100m

48.An example of a WMAN is WiMAX

49.WiMAX could possibly replace T1 AND T3 technologies

50.Is it ideal for a WMAN to use ISM frequencies?
no

51.Do WWAN’s have high data rates?
no

52.The most popular versions of WWAN’s are… (2)
1) GSM
2) CDMA

53.Two original versions of 802.11 topologies:
1) Ad-hoc, no central point
2) Infrastructure, has a central point

54.The coverage area of an AP is called the
BSA

55.The wired network is aka the…
Distribution system

56.2 or more BSA’s make an…
ESA

57.The process of clients moving AP’s called…
Roaming

58.An SSID is a combination of what two things
MAC address and network name

59.AP’s can have up to __ SSID’s
16

60.An AP offering more than one NW called a
MBSSID

61.What is an AWGB
Connects to upstream AP’s and allows wired ethernet clients to connect as non-standard clients

62.What is an UWGB
Allows single wired device to be bridged upstream to an AP as a standard device

63.Overlap needed for a wireless repeater is…
50%

64.Original AP in a repeated wireless network is called…
The root device

65.Outdoor wireless bridges operate at what layer of the OSI model
L2

66.What is used to determine the best path in a wireless mesh network?
AWPP protocol

CCNA Wireless Chapter 1 and Chapter 2 Exam Answers

1.With radio frequencies, the goal is…
to send as much data as possible
as far as possible
as fast as possible

2.The IEEE wireless standard is…
802.11

3.The FCC defines (4 things)
Unlicensed frequencies
Power @ which frequencies can be transmitted at
Transmission technologies which can be used
Locations WLAN dev’s can be deployed

4.The European equivalent of the FCC is called
ETSI: European Telecommunications Standards Institute

5.To achieve bandwidth from RF, an _____________ method is needed, for example ______________
emission method
example: spread spectrum

6.To place data on RF signals, a __________ method is required
modulation method

7.Modulation is…
The addition of data to a carrier signal

8.As data is placed on a signal, more ______________ aka _________________ is used
frequency spectrum or bandwidth

9.In wireless terminology, bandwidth refers to…
The width of the RF channel

10.Hertz can be described as…
Cycles /second

11.Extremely low frequency range = 3-30hz

12.Super low frequency range = 30-300hz

13.Ultra low frequency range = 300hz-3khz

14.Very low frequency range = 3khz-30khz

15.Low frequency range = 30khz-300khz

16.Medium frequency range = 300khz-3mhz

17.High frequency range = 3mhz-30mhz

18.Very high frequency range = 30mhz-300mhz

19.Ultra high frequency range = 300mhz-3ghz

20.Super high frequency range = 3ghz-30ghz

21.Extremely high frequency range = 30ghz-300ghz

22.The 900mhz band’s range is 902mhz-928mhz

23.The 2.4ghz band is used by which 3 wireless standards?
802.11b,g, and n

24.The 2.4ghz band’s range is
2.400ghz – 2.4835ghz

25.The 2.4ghz band has ____ channels
11

26.The 2.4ghz band’s channels are _____ wide
22mhz

27.Which channels in the 2.4ghz range do not overlap?
1, 6 and 11

28.The 2.4ghz band uses _______ modulation
DSSS: direct sequence spread spectrum modulation

29.What standards use the 5ghz band?
802.11a and n

30.The data rate range of 802.11a is
6-54mbps

31.In the 5ghz band, channels are _____ wide
20mhz

32.The 5ghz band has _______ channels
23

33.The 5ghz band uses _________ modulation
OFDM

34.The data rates available inside the 5ghz band are:
6,9,12,18,24,36,48 and 54mbps

35.Define modulation:
Varying in a signal or a tone called a carrier signal

36.Define encoding:
When data is added to that signal

37.A modulated waveform consists of 3 parts
1) amplitude; strength of signal
2) phase; the timing of signal between peaks
3) frequency; how often signal repeats /sec

38.In DSSS, the transmitted signal is spread
across the entire channel

39.Every data bit in DSSS is sent as a
chip stream

40.How many bits need to change in a chip stream before the bit is miscommunicated
5 or more

41.802.11 1 & 2 mbps use which encoding method?
barker code

42.802.11 5.5 and 11mbps use which encoding method?
cck: complimentary code keying

43.How many key words does cck have?
64

44.Each key word in cck communicates how many bits?
up to 6

45.802.11b uses DBPSK and DQPSK modulation, what are these?
These are methods of representing information by changing the phase of the signal

46.What is DBPSK?
Two phases are separated by 180 degrees, DBPSK modulates 1 bit per symbol

47.In DBPSK, a 180 degree phase shift = 1

48.In DBPSK, a zero degree phase shift = 0

49.Is OFDM considered a spread spectrum technology?
no

50.Channels in OFDM are divided into 20mhz, each subcarrier within these channels is 312.5hz wide

51.MIMO is used by
802.11n

52.As distance from AP increases, data rates
decrease

53.What is DRS?
Dynamic rate shifting
The data rate can be dynamically shifted without the connection being dropped

54.CSMA/CD uses a ___________ field to tell other transmitters how long it needs the channel for
duration field

55.The FCC is the federal communications commission

56.Cisco antennae use the __________ connector which stands for
RP-TNC (reverse polarity thread neil concelman connector)

57.What is the measurement for the power emitted by an antenna?
EIRP: effective isotropic radiated power

58.P2MP rules:
36dbm EIRP max
30dbm transmitter power
6db gain of antenna and cable combined
A 1:1 ratio of power to gain

CCNA 4 v5 CN Final Exam Answers 2015

CCNA 4 Final Exam – Connecting Networks (Version 5.02)

1 Why is it useful categorize networks by size when discussing network design?

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers will be added to the three-tier hierarchical network design.

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer switches will be necessary at the core layer.

A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the number of connected devices is know.

The complexity of networking infrastructure will vary according to the number of connected devices.*

2 Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.
LCP tests the quality of the link.*
LCP manages compression on the link.*

3 What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

fixed capacity
higher latency*
less flexibility
higher cost

4 Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

it assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.
it can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*
it enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.
it supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.

5


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?

The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.
There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2.*
The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
The serial interface on Router2 is down.

6 The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?

VPN appliance
VPN concentrator
VPN client software*
VPN gateway

7 A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is configured on router R2. Which command can the administrator use to see the total number of active NAT translations and the number of addresses that are allocated from the NAT pool?

R2# show ip nat translations
R2# clear ip nat translation
R2# show running-config
R2# show ip nat statistics*

8 Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for congestion control? (Choose three.)

the FECN bit*
the BECN bit*
the C/R bit
the 10-bit DLCI
the Extended Address field
the DE bit*

9 Which two statements correctly describe asymmetric encryption used with an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)

The same encryption keys must be manually configured on each device.
Public key encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption.*
Encryption and decryption use a different key.*
A shared secret key is used to perform encryption and descryption.
AES is an example of an asymmetric encryption protocol.

10 Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

MPLS*
ISDN
Ethernet WAN
Frame Relay

11 Drag and droop

Place the options in the following order:
PAP Characteristics
uses two-way handshake
single challenge
weak authentication
clear text passwords

CHAP Characteristics
uses three-way handshake
repeated challenges
strong authentication
encrypted passwords

12 Which command can be used to check the information about congestion on a Frame Relay link?

show frame-relay lmi
show interfaces
show frame-relay pvc*
show frame-relay map

13 Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)

Client software is usually required to be able to access the network.*
Remote access VPNs are used to connect entire networks, such as a branch office to headquarters.
Remote access VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile users.*
A leased line is required to implement remote access VPNs.
End users are not aware that VPNs exists.

14

Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilik PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)

Bind the multilink bundle to the Fast Ethernet interface.
Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.
Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*
Create and configure the multilink interface.*
Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle
Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*

15 What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)

incorrect interface clock rates
late collisions and jabber
framing errors*
electromagnetic interface
encapsulation errors*

16 What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

CHAP
ADSL
PPPoE*
LTE

17 What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?

The host must be connected to wired network.
A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
A web browser must be installed on the host.*
VPN client software must be installed.

18


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the configuration in the displayed output. What is missing from the configuration that would be preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame Relay service provider?

The command to disable split horizon has not been issued.
The passive-interface command has not been issued on interface serial 0/1/0
The directly connected neighbor should have been identified by using static mapping.
The broadcast keyword has not been issued.*

19


Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Internet access to the inside network. After the configurtation is completed, users are unable to access the internet. What is the cause of the problem?

The inside and outside interfaces are backwards.
The ACL is referencing the wrong network address.
The NAT inside source command is referring to the wrong ACL.*
The NAT pool is using an invalid address range.

20 A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the name given to this type of connection?

multihomed
single-homed
dual-multihomed
dual-homed*

21

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 miliseconds.
This host does not have a default gateway configured.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

22 A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70

What is the effect of these commands?

The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

23 Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?

802.5
802.11
802.16*
802.3

24 Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by NetFlow collectors? (Choose three.)

accounting*
network monitoring*
error correction
bandwidth regulation
quality of service
billing*

25

 

Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?

NAT overload
dynamic NAT
port forwarding*
PAT

26

Place the options in the following order:

Outside global

– not scored –

Outside local

Inside global

– not scored –

Inside local

27 What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to send critical logging events?

syslog server
virtual terminal
console port*
auxiliary port

28 In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only gather traffic statistics?

SNMP agent
NetFlow collector*
syslog server
NMS

29 What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that allows customer data transmissions to dynamically “burst” over their CIR for short periods of time?

The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables the CIR to be exceeded.
The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between subscribers and there may be times when unused bandwidth is available.*
BECN and FECN messages notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.
Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one physical interface.

30 Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

GET response
SET request
GET request
Trap*

31 Which statement is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?

The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information within the MIB.
The MIB structure for a given device includes only variables that are specific to that device or vendor.
The MIB organizes variables in a flat manner.
The NMS must have access to the MIB in order for SNMP to operate properly.*

32 What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure form hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

33 What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?

The user can select the upload and download rates based on need.
The download and upload rates are the same.
The upload rate is faster than the download rate.
The download rate is faster than the upload rate.*

34 The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which three subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci
frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci broadcast
no shutdown
ip address ip-address mask*
encapsulation farme-relay
bandwidth kilobits*
frame-relay interface dlci dlci*

35 A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necesary information? (Choose three.)

tracert
telnet
ping*
netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
nslookup*
arp -a
ipconfig*

36

 

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:

R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3

Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?

The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.
The snmp-server location command is missing.
There is a problem with the ACL configuration.*
The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.

37 Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that requires fast upstream connections?

DSL
Cable
fiber-to-the-home*
WiMax

38

 

Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What will be the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?

192.168.0.1
172.16.0.1
209.165.200.225*
10.0.0.1
192.168.0.200

39 What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?

remote access
public
site-to-site*
private

40 Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO*
uses RF signal transmission
users are on a shared medium
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)*
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS

41

 

Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose three.)

Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or lower.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the destination IP address.*
The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface.
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three messages will be sent to the server.

42 Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.*
Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.
Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by supporting parallel data transmission.
Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources are transmitted using interleaved slices of time.*
Depending on the configured layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more channels via the use of time slots.

43 Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)

TDR
DTX cable analyzer
NAM*
digital multimeter
portable network analyzer*

44 Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*
when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN
when the network will span multiple buildings
when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

45 Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?

RSA
3DES*
SHA-1
AES

46 What is one advantage to designing networks in bulding block fashion for large companies?

fewer required physical resources
increased network access time
coarse security control
failure isolation*

47 Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.)

CMTS
VPN*
CDMA
IPsec*
DOCSIS

48 A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network outage?

The network technician for the branch office should troubleshoot the switched infrastructure.
The server administrator in the branch office should reconfigured the DHCP server.
The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue starting from the point of demarcation.*
The system administartor in the branch office should reconfigure the default gateway on the user PCs.

49

 

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the CORP router?

10.1.1.1
209.165.202.134
10.1.1.2
209.165.202.133*

50 How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a T1 line?

8
32
24*
16

51 Which network module maintains the resources that employees, partners, and customers rely on to effectively create, colaborate, and interact with information?

services
access-distribution
data-center*
enterprise edge

52 Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?

ADSL
cable*
DSL
WiMax

53 A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP can only supply five public IP addresses for this network. What technology can the administrator use to accomplish this task?

classless interdomain routing
variable length subnet masks
classful subnetting
port-based Network Address Translation*

54 What is the purpose of a message hash in a VPN connection?

It ensures that the data is coming from the correct source.
It ensures that the data cannot be duplicated and replayed to the destination.
It ensures that the data has not changed while in transit.*
It ensures that the data cannot be read in plain text.

55 Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
IPsec*

56 Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

network configuration files
syslog records and messages
debug output and packet captures
the network performance baseline*

57 What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

mature technology*
QoS support using the IP precedence field
integrated encryption
one physical interface that can be used for several circuits*
reasonable cost*
seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN

58 What type of information is collected by Cisco NetFlow?

interface errors
traffic statistics*
memory usage
CPU usage

59 Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

dialup ISDN modem
T1
DSL*
dialup analog modem

60 Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)

packet-switched*
private infrastructure*
public infrastructure
Internet
dedicated

61 What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)

GRE tunnels support multicast traffic.*
GRE creates additional overload for packets that are traveling through the VPN.*
GRE uses AES for encryption unless otherwise specified
By default, GRE does not include any flow control mechanisms.*
Developed by the IETF, GRE is a secure tunneling protocol that was designed for Cisco routers.
GRE provides encapsulation for a single protocol type that is traveling through the VPN.

62 An intercity bus company wants to offer constat Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

cellular*
dedicated
private infrastructure
circuit-switched
public infrastructure*

63 What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

syslog server
terminal line
workstation
console line*

 

CCNA 4 v5 CN Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer 2014

CCNA 4 v5 CN Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer 2014

CCNA Routing and Switching
Connecting Networks

Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer

A few things to keep in mind while completing this activity:

  1. Do not use the browser Back button or close or reload any exam windows during the exam.
  2. Do not close Packet Tracer when you are done. It will close automatically.
  3. Click the Submit Assessment button in the browser window to submit your work.

Introduction

In this practice skills assessment, you will configure the Small Business network with NTP, SNMP, EIGRP, PPP CHAP, Frame Relay, dynamic NAT, static NAT, PAT and a GRE tunnel.

Some values that are required to complete the configurations may not have been given to you. In that case, create the values that you need to complete the requirements.

For the sake of time, many repetitive, but important, configuration tasks have been omitted from this assessment. Many of these tasks, especially those related to security, are essential elements of a network configuration. The intent of this activity is not to diminish the importance of full device configurations.

You will practice and be assessed on the following skills:

  • Configuration of NTP
  • Configuration of SNMP and Syslog
  • Configuration of interface addressing and basic settings
  • Configuration of HDLC
  • Configuration of Frame Relay
  • Configuration of PPP
  • Configuration of CHAP
  • Configuration of a GRE tunnel
  • Configuration of static and dynamic routing
  • Configuration of dynamic NAT
  • Configuration of static NAT
  • Configuration of PAT

You are required to configure the devices as follows:

Office-1:

  • Configure HDLC.
  • Configure EIGRP.
  • Configure passive interfaces.

R2:

  • Configure PPP and CHAP authentication on the appropriate interface.
  • Configure EIGRP.
  • Configure static NAT for outside access to an internal server.
  • Configure dynamic NAT.
  • Configure PAT.

R3:

  • Enable time stamps for use with NTP and SNMP logging.
  • Configure the router to use NTP services.
  • Configure logging to the IT Monitor Server.
  • Configure PPP and CHAP authentication on the appropriate interface.
  • Configure Frame Relay.
  • Configure a GRE tunnel.
  • Configure EIGRP.
  • Configure passive interfaces.

Office-2-Branch:

  • Configure Frame Relay.
  • Configure a GRE tunnel.
  • Configure EIGRP.
  • Configure passive Interfaces.

Tables

In some cases, specific interface addresses have been provided to you. You must use them in your configurations. In other cases, when a network is specified instead of a specific address, you can use any address in the network.

You do not configure LAN addresses in this activity. The addresses of the LAN interfaces are provided in this table for reference purposes only.

Device

Interface

IP Address or Network

Default Gateway

Office-1

G0/1

192.168.1.1/24

N/A

S0/0/0

192.168.0.0/30

N/A

R2

G0/0

172.16.0.1/30

N/A

S0/0/0

192.168.0.0/30

N/A

S0/0/1

10.10.0.0/30

N/A

S0/1/0

203.0.113.1/28

N/A

R3

G0/1

10.10.1.1/24

N/A

S0/0/0

10.10.2.1/30

N/A

S0/0/1

10.10.0.0/30

N/A

T0

10.10.10.1/30

N/A

Office-2-Branch

G0/0

10.10.3.1/24

N/A

S0/0/0

10.10.2.2/30

N/A

T0

10.10.10.2/30

N/A

Partner Server

NIC

172.16.0.2/30

172.16.0.1

IT Monitor Server

NIC

10.10.1.2/24

10.10.1.1

Office-1 PC

NIC

192.168.1.5/24

192.168.1.1

R3 Host

NIC

10.10.1.5/24

10.10.1.1

Office-2 Branch PC

NIC

10.10.3.5/24

10.10.3.1

CCNAEXAM.NET

Instructions

All configurations must be performed through a direct terminal connection to the device console from an available host.

Step 1: Configure NTP, SNMP, and Syslog settings on R3.

a. Configure NTP.

  • Configure R3 to use IT Monitor Server as its NTP server.
  • Use a key value of 15.

b. Configure SNMP.

  • Use an SNMP community string of CiscoPTSA.
  • Allow the SNMP management station only read only rights.

c. Configure Syslog.

  • Configure R3 to use time stamps when logging. The timestamps should include milliseconds.
  • Configure Syslog to send log entries to the IT Monitor Server.
  • Set the message trapping for Syslog to the debugging level.

Step 2: Configure Frame Relay between R3 and Office-2-Branch.

Configure Frame Relay on the interfaces connecting R3 and Office-2-Branchusing the information from the Addressing Table.  You must use the exact addresses specified in the addressing table for the configuration.

Step 3:  Configure a GRE Tunnel between R3 and Office-2-Branch.

  • Configure a GRE tunnel using Tunnel interface 0 on R3 to Office-2-Branch using information from the addressing table.
  • Configure a GRE tunnel using Tunnel interface 0 on Office-2-Branchto R3 using information from the addressing table.
  • You must use the exact addresses specified in the addressing table for this configuration.

Step 4: Configure DCE interfaces.

Configure the DCE interfaces of R2 with a clock rate of 128000.

Step 5:  Configure PPP and CHAP between R2 and R3.

  • Configure interface addressing according to information provided in the Addressing Table. You can use any address in the network specified in the Addressing Table for this configuration.
  • Authenticate the PPP connection with CHAP on both ends of the link.
  • Use the password of PTSAchap.

Step 6:  Configure HDLC on Office-1 and  R2.

It has been decided to remove an earlier PPP configuration from the link between Office-1 and R2.

  • Configure this link with HDLC.
  • Configure interface addressing according to information provided in the Addressing Table. You can use any address in the network specified in the Addressing Table.

Step 7:  Configure NAT on R2.

All hosts should use translated addresses to access destinations outside of the Small Business network.

a. Configure static NAT.

  • Configure static NAT for the IP address of the Partner Server.
  • Use the last host address in the interface S0/1/0 subnet.

b. Configure dynamic NAT.

  • Configure dynamic NAT for all host IP addresses on the LAN network connected to Office-1.
  • Use DYNAMIC as the name for the pool.
  • Use the third through tenth IP addresses that are available on the R2 S0/1/0 subnet.
  • Configure ACL 1 to allow all host IP addresses in Office-1 LAN network to use this group of addresses.
  • Your ACL should have one statement.

c. Configure PAT.

  • Configure PAT to enable the hosts attached to the R3 and Office-2-Branch LANs to access the Internet.
  • Use the interface keyword in the NAT statement.
  • Use ACL 2 to allow all host addresses on both LAN networks to use the overload address.
  • Your ACL should have two statements.
  • Configure all interfaces on R2 as appropriate.

Step 8:  Configure static and dynamic routing.

a. Configure dynamic routing.

  • Configure EIGRP for all networks connected to Office-1, R2,R3, and Office-2-Branch.
  • Use ASN 1.
  • Use the precise inverse masks for all networks.
  • Disable automatic summarization on all routers.
  • Disable EIGRP updates from being sent on the appropriate interfaces. You must do this for each individual interface. Donot use the default keyword with the command.

b. Configure a redistribute a default route.

  • Create a directly attached default route to the Internet on R2.
  • Configure EIGRP to redistribute the default route to the other routers.

 

CCNA 4 v5 CN Practice Final Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 4 v5 CN Practice Final Exam Answers 2014

Connecting Networks 

1
Which is a clientless VPN solution for mobile workers?

GRE
SSL*
SSH
IPsec

2
For a VPN, which technology provides secure remote access over broadband?

ADSL
QoS
IPsec*
LTE

3
A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?

Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.
Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.
Company A is closer to the service provider.*
Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.

4
How does an SNMP trap aid network monitoring and management?

It flags attempts to begin a DoS attack on the network.
It collects information for the management station by using polling devices.
It reports to the management station by responding to polls.
It sends an alert message to the management station when a threshold is reached.*

5


Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.
The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.
The NAT pool has been exhausted.*
Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

6


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

network
physical
application
data link*
transport

7
A user is unable to connect to the Internet. The network administrator decides to use the top-down troubleshooting approach. Which action should the administrator perform first?

Check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall.
Run the tracert command to identify the faulty device.
Enter an IP address in the address bar of the web browser to determine if DNS has failed.*
Run the ipconfig command to verify the IP address, subnet mask, and gateway on the PC.

8


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router Edge_Router as shown in the output. Connectivity is failing between Edge_Router and a non-Cisco router running Frame Relay. What should be done to repair this Layer 2 connectivity?

Modify the OSPF process-id from 10 to 1.
Issue the frame-relay lmi-type ansi command on interface serial 0/1/0.
Issue the ietf keyword when enabling Frame Relay on interface serial 0/1/0.*
Issue the broadcast keyword when performing static mapping on interface serial 0/1/0.
Correct the IP address used in the frame-relay map command.

9
What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.
Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.*
Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.
Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are.

10
A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?

Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.*

11
Which statement describes cable?

The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.*
Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12
Which syslog entry has a severity code that indicates the most serious situation?

Mar 17 06:42:22: 10.1.1.1 %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to down*
Mar 17 06:43:02: 10.1.1.1 %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to up
Mar 17 06:42:21: 10.1.1.1 %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/3 (not half duplex), with NA-1.30.foo.com FastEthernet0/24 (half duplex).
Mar 17 06:03:21: 10.1.1.1 %SYS-6-BOOTTIME: Time taken to reboot after reload = 551932 seconds
Mar 17 06:42:20: 10.1.1.1 %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by mwmwm on vty0 (192.168.254.5)
Mar 17 06:42:22: 10.1.1.1 %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to down

13


Refer to the exhibit. R3 has the following configuration:

R3# show running-config
–some output text omitted–
interface serial0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what is the problem?

An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.*
No clock rate has been configured on interface s0.
The encapsulation frame-relay command is missing the broadcast keyword.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement

14
A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

cable
ISDN
DSL*
POTS

15
Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

ISDN
metro Ethernet
Frame Relay
ATM*

16
Which two statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose two.)

NetFlow can be used to collect performance indicators such as interface errors, CPU usage, and memory usage.
NetFlow traffic collectors use a “pull” based model to acquire traffic statistics from ports of interest.
NetFlow can be used to monitor traffic statistics, including packet payload content.
NetFlow is a Cisco-specific feature that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles.*
NetFlow can be used to create baseline documentation.*
NetFlow is a network monitoring and event reporting tool.

17
Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)

community ID
checksum field
date and time of message*
ID of sending device*
length of message
message ID*

18
Which statement is true about NCP?

NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.
Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.*
Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.

19
What is IPsec?

a protocol that is used to create a VPN at Layer 2 of the OSI model
a 56-bit authentication and encryption method that must be used to create VPN tunnels
a means by which routers and VPN gateways read and forward packets with encrypted packet headers
a specification for the way in which a group of protocols and algorithms combine to create VPNs*

20

Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which message is displayed on the web browser?

PPP is working!*
Configured correctly!
PPP configured!
Well done!

21
Which statement is true about the operation of a site-to-site VPN connection?

The data is encrypted by the VPN gateway at the sending side and decrypted by the target host.
The data is encrypted by the sending host and decrypted by the VPN gateway at the receiving side.
The data is encrypted and decrypted by VPN gateways at both the sending and receiving sides.*
The data is encrypted and decrypted by the sending and target hosts.

22


Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router:

RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0
RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown

PPP
HDLC*
Ethernet
Frame Relay

23
What are two characteristics of DSL technology? (Choose two.)

Filters and splitters allow POTS and DSL traffic to share the same medium.*
DSL download rates are reduced by large volumes of POTS voice traffic.
Service providers deploy DSL in the local loop of the telephone network.*
DSL is a shared medium that allows many users to share bandwidth available from the DSLAM.
Uploads typically offer larger transfer rates than downloads.

24


Refer to the exhibit. A small office uses an ISR to provide connectivity for both wired and wireless computers. One day, a sales person who is using a laptop cannot connect to Server1 through the wireless network. A network technician attempts to determine if the problem is on the wireless or the wired network. The technician pings successfully from the wireless laptop to the default gateway IP address on the ISR. What should be the next troubleshooting step?

Ping from Server1 to its gateway IP address.*
Ping from Server1 to PC1.
Ping from the laptop to the Ethernet port on the cable modem.
Ping from the laptop to PC1

25
What are two WAN connection enhancements that are achieved by implementing PPPoE? (Choose two.)

Encapsulating Ethernet frames within PPP frames is an efficient use of bandwidth.
DSL CHAP features are included in PPPoE.
PPP enables the ISP to assign an IP address to the customer WAN interface.*
An Ethernet link supports a number of data link protocols.
CHAP enables customer authentication and accounting.*

26
A company has been assigned the 203.0.113.0/27 block of IP addresses by the ISP. The company has over 6000 internal devices. What type of NAT would be most appropriate for the employee workstations of the company?

dynamic NAT
dynamic NAT overload using the pool of addresses*
static NAT
port forwarding
PAT off the external router interface

27
What are two significant benefits that are provided by IPsec? (Choose two.)

encapsulation*
encryption*
automatic creation of a private network
automatic creation of a public network
authentication

28
What makes the Cisco EasyVPN application a useful tool for VPN implementation?

It ensures that remote workers actually use the VPN for connectivity.
It simplifies the configuration tasks for the device that is used as the VPN server.*
It allows a greater variety of network devices to be used for VPN connections.
It provides encryption algorithms unavailable in other systems.
29
What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single component that is located in the access layer.
It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network approach.
It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer.
It provides an enterprise-wide system network architecture that helps protect, optimize, and grow the network infrastructure that supports the business processes of a company.*
30
Which basic network module of the Enterprise Architecture is the fundamental component of a campus design?

services module
data center
enterprise edge
access-distribution*

31


Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.
The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.
The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.
The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.*

32
Which statement best describes a WAN?

WAN is another name for the Internet.
A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.
A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.*
A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.

33


Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to any address in the 192.168.2.0 network fails. What is the cause of this problem?

There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.*
A default route is not configured on R1.

34


Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration of R1, which device is the inside host and what is the inside local address of this host?

PC-B with address 64.100.0.100
PC-A with address 64.100.0.100
PC-B with address 209.165.200.225*
PC-A with address 209.165.200.225

35
Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)

The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE.*
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are CHAP and PAP.
The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.*
The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.*

36
What type of installation is needed to view syslog messages?

A syslog client must be installed on a workstation.
Because any network equipment can interpret syslog messages, nothing special is needed to view them.
A syslog server must be installed on a router.
A syslog server must be installed on a workstation.*

37
What are three Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)

BECN*
FECN*
DE*
DLCI
Inverse ARP
LMI

38
What is the relationship between the DE and the CIR in Frame Relay?

The DE bit will indicate when the CIR committed burst size should be applied.
When the CIR on a given DLCI is exceeded, the DE bit of frames above the CIR is set.*
When the CIR is exceeded, an Inverse ARP DE message notifies the source to reduce frame transmission speed.
The XON/XOFF flow control mechanism sets the DE bit when the CIR is exceeded.

39
What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

distance from the central office of the provider
committed information rate
smaller cells
number of subscribers*

40
The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)

An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device.*
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.*

41

Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the IP address or range of IP addresses that are used as the inside global address for packets that originate from PC1 and are going to the server?​

209.165.200.231 – 209.165.200.239
192.168.10.21
209.165.200.225 – 200.165.200.229*
192.168.10.1 – 192.168.10.254
209.165.200.231

42
Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)

AES*
SHA
Diffie-Hellman
DES*
ESP
3DES*

43
An administrator needs to configure a router so that internal network servers are accessible from the Internet. Each server is configured with a private IPv4 address. What type of NAT should the administrator configure?

dynamic NAT
PAT
NAT overloading
static NAT*

44
Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths*
modulation techniques*
maximum data rate
access method
compression techniques

45
What are three parameters that are used by NetFlow to classify traffic? (Choose three.)

TOS field*
number of packets
port number*
ingress interface*
egress interface
number of bytes

46
Which two products are part of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)

Cisco Unified Computing
Cisco Unified Communications*
Cisco Borderless End Point​
Cisco TelePresence​*
Cisco Virtual Private Network

47
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands?

Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME

31
24
9
10
8*
7

48
In the Cisco Enterprise Architectures network design approach what is the purpose of the enterprise edge module?

to provide high-speed connectivity and protection for servers
to provide Internet, VPN, and WAN connections*
to forward traffic from one local network to another
to provide access to IP telephony services, wireless controller services, and unified services

49
How does STDM allocate bandwidth on a serial connection?

It ensures that bandwidth is allocated to each channel or time slot regardless of whether the station using the channel has data to transmit.
It ensures each of the time slices are assigned to individual conversations.
It keeps track of conversations that require extra bandwidth. It then dynamically reassigns unused time slices on an as-needed basis.*
It statically assigns bandwidth based upon pre-assigned time slots.

50

Refer to the exhibit. While planning an upgrade, a network administrator uses the Cisco NetFlow utility to analyze data flow in the current network. What generated the most packets?

TCP-other*
UDP-DNS
TCP-Telnet
UDP-other
ICMP

 

CCNA 4 v5 CN Chapter 9 Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 4 v5 CN Chapter 9 Exam Answers 2014

Connecting Networks

1. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

syslog records and messages
the network performance baseline*
debug output and packet captures
network configuration files

2. A team of engineers has identified a solution to a significant network problem. The proposed solution is likely to affect critical network infrastructure components. What should the team follow while implementing the solution to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastructure?

change-control procedures*
one of the layered troubleshooting approaches
knowledge base guidelines
syslog messages and reports

3. After which step in the network troubleshooting process would one of the layered troubleshooting methods be used?

documenting symptoms
determining ownership
narrowing the scope
gathering symptoms from suspect devices*

4. A user reports that the workstation cannot connect to a networked printer in the office in order to print a report created with word processing software. Which troubleshooting action by the helpdesk technician would follow the divide-and-conquer approach?

Ask the user to launch the web browser.
Ask the user to save the working document.
Ask the user to issue the ipconfig command.*
Ask the user to unplug and reattach the network cable.

5. A network engineer is troubleshooting a network problem and can successfully ping between two devices. However, Telnet between the same two devices does not work. Which OSI layers should the administrator investigate next?

all of the layers
from the network layer to the application layer*
from the network layer to the physical layer
only the network layer

6. Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?

top-down
bottom-up*
substitution
divide-and-conquer

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands?(Choose two.)

R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.*
R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is entered.
R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.
R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.
The syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10.*

8. An administrator is troubleshooting an Internet connectivity problem on a router. The output of the show interfaces gigabitethernet 0/0 command reveals higher than normal framing errors on the interface that connects to the Internet. At what layer of the OSI model is the problem likely occurring?

Layer 1
Layer 2*
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 7

9. Users report that the new web site http://www.company1.biz cannot be accessed. The helpdesk technician checks and verifies that the web site can be accessed with http://www.company1.biz:90. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is involved in troubleshooting this issue?

application
transport*
internet
network access

10. A user reports that after an OS patch of the networking subsystem has been applied to a workstation, it performs very slowly when connecting to network resources. A network technician tests the link with a cable analyzer and notices that the workstation sends an excessive number of frames smaller than 64 bytes and also other meaningless frames. What is the possible cause of the problem?

cabling faults
corrupted NIC driver*
Ethernet signal attenuation
corrupted application installation

11. A network administrator is configuring SSH on a router. When verifying the configuration, the administrator notices that the SSH connection requests fail, but the Telnet connection requests from the same workstation are successful. Which two parts of the router configuration should be checked to try to locate the problem? (Choose two.)

The ip access-class command is missing.
The password is misconfigured on the console line.
The transport input command is incorrect on the vty lines.*
A standard ACL is possibly blocking the workstation from access to the router.
An extended ACL that is referencing the port argument for SSH is misconfigured.*

12. A user in a large office calls technical support to complain that a PC has suddenly lost connectivity to the network. The technician asks the caller to talk to nearby users to see if other machines are affected. The caller reports that several immediate neighbors in the same department have a similar problem and that they cannot ping each other. Those who are seated in other departments have connectivity. What should the technician check as the first step in troubleshooting the issue?

the power outlet to the PC that is used by the caller
the trunks between switches in the wiring closet
the status of the departmental workgroup switch in the wiring closet*
the cable that connects the PC of the caller to the network jack
the cable connection between a PC and a network outlet that is used by a neighbor

13. After cables were reconnected to a switch in a wiring closet, several PCs that had been previously configured manually can no longer access resources outside the local network. The PC configurations were not altered in the process and resources on the local network can still be accessed. What is a possible cause of the problem?

The cabling to the PCs is faulty.
The PCs are no longer on the correct VLAN.*
The DHCP server has been misconfigured.
The DNS configuration on the PCs is incorrect.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 miliseconds.
This host does not have a default gateway configured.

15. Fill in the blank.

Use the ” ARP   ” cache to verify IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet address mappings on a host computer.

16. Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)

digital multimeter
TDR
NAM*
portable network analyzer*
DTX cable analyzer

17. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

ipconfig*
telnet
ping*
arp -a
nslookup*
tracert
netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor

18. A company is setting up a web site with SSL technology to protect the authentication credentials required to access the web site. A network engineer needs to verify that the setup is correct and that the authentication is indeed encrypted. Which tool should be used?

baselining tool
cable analyzer
protocol analyzer*
fault-management tool

19. In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?

Determine ownership.
Narrow the scope.*
Gather information.
Document the symptoms.
Determine the symptoms.

20. A network technician is troubleshooting an email connection problem. Which question to the end-user will provide clear information to better define the problem?

How big are the emails you tried to send?
When did you first notice your email problem?*
Is your email working now?
What kind of equipment are you using to send emails?

21. A network engineer issues the show cdp neighbor command on several network devices during the process of network documentation. What is the purpose of performing this command?

to obtain information about directly connected Cisco devices *
to check the networks that are advertised by the neighboring routers
to verify the network addresses that are attached to the network devices
to check the connectivity of PCs that are connected to the network devices

22.

Refer to exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting a WAN connectivity problem. A ping to a remote router is successful and an attempt to telnet to the same router displays the exhibited output. What does the output verify?

A Telnet password has not been configured on the remote router.
The transport layer is connecting successfully.*
The web server service is password protected.
The remote router IPv6 address is incorrect.

23. When should a network performance baseline be measured?

after normal work hours to reduce possible interruptions
during normal work hours of an organization *
when a denial of service attack to the network is detected and blocked
immediately after the main network devices restarted

24. Which number represents the most severe level of syslog logging?

7
0*
1
10

25.

Place the options in the following order:
[+] CiscoView
[+] What’s Up Gold
[+] HP OpenviewBTO
[#] SolarWinds LAN surveyor
[#] CyberGauge software
[*] Internet search engines
[*] Cisco Tools & Resources web site

[+] Order does not matter within this group.
[#] Order does not matter within this group.
[*] Order does not matter within this group.

 

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2017