It-essentials v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam 2018

1. What are two factors that must be considered when choosing a computer case? (Choose two.)

the size of the monitor

the speed of the memory

the number of internal drive locations*

the size of the motherboard and the power supply*

the number of LED indicators at the front of the case

 



 

2. A technician looks at a motherboard and sees a 24-pin connector. What component would connect to the motherboard through the use of this 24-pin connector?

power supply*

video card

PATA optical drive

SATA drive

floppy drive

 

3. What electrical unit refers to the number of electrons moving through a circuit per second?

current*

voltage

resistance

power

 

4. What characteristic of electricity is expressed in watts?

the amount of work required to move electrons through a circuit

the resistance to the flow of current in a circuit

the amount of electrons flowing through a circuit per second

the work required to move electrons through a circuit multiplied by the number of electrons flowing through a circuit per second*

 

5. Which type of memory is primarily used as cache memory?

DRAM

RAM

ROM

SRAM*

 

6. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of adapter is shown?

sound

RAID

video

network interface*

 

7. Which component controls the communications and interactions between the CPU and other components on the motherboard?

RAM

BIOS

CMOS

chipset*

 

8. Which two activities are normally controlled by the Northbridge part of the chipset? (Choose two.)

communication between the CPU and the I/O ports

access to the RAM*

communication between the CPU and the hard drive

access to the video card*

communication between the CPU and the sound card

 

9. Which unit of measurement is used to indicate the hard drive speed?

revolutions per minute*

gigabytes

pages per minute

clusters per minute

 

10. Which type of interface was originally developed for high-definition televisions and is also popular to use with computers to connect audio and video devices?

FireWire

DVI

HDMI*

USB

VGA

 

11. Which two devices are considered input devices? (Choose two.)

biometric authentication device*

printer

digital camera*

projector

speakers

 

12. What is indicated by the contrast ratio of a monitor?

the difference in the intensity of light between the brightest white and darkest black that can be displayed*

how often the picture image is refreshed

the total number of pixels that make up the picture

the ratio of the horizontal and vertical viewing areas of the monitor

 

13. What type of connector can be used to connect an internal hard drive to the motherboard?

USB

SATA*

eSATA

Thunderbolt

 

14. Which two factors must be considered when replacing old RAM modules in a PC? (Choose two.)

The new RAM must be compatible with BIOS or UEFI.

The new RAM must be compatible with the motherboard.*

The speed of the new RAM must be supported by the chipset.*

The power supply must provide the voltage that is requred by the new RAM.

The new RAM must match the old RAM in terms of capacity and speed.

 

15. Which term is used to define the wires on a motherboard that move data from one part of a computer to another?

bus*

I/O card

bridge

chipset

 

16. When a new PC is being built, which component has the most influence when selecting the case and power supply?

video card

sound card

RAM module

motherboard*

hard disk type

 

17. What is the function of the power supply?

to convert AC power into a lower voltage DC power*

to convert AC power into a higher voltage DC power

to convert DC power into a lower voltage AC power

to convert DC power into a higher voltage AC power

 

18. Which two considerations would be of the greatest importance when building a workstation that will run multiple virtual machines? (Choose two.)

amount of RAM*

number of CPU cores*

water cooling

powerful video card

high-end sound card

 

19. A user playing a game on a gaming PC with a standard EIDE 5400 RPM hard drive finds the performance unsatisfactory. Which hard drive upgrade would improve performance while providing more reliability and more energy efficiency?

a 7200 RPM EIDE hard drive

a 7200 RPM SATA hard drive

a 10,000 RPM SATA hard drive

an SSD*

 

20. What three components should be included in a computer that is used to create TV commercials and music videos? (Choose three.)

extra DIN-6 ports

specialized video card*

extra PS/2 ports

large and fast hard drives*

VGA adaptors

specialized audio card*

 

21. What are two hardware requirements for computers that will be used to run multiple virtual machines? (Choose two.)

large amounts of RAM*

a multicore CPU*

a high resolution video card

a high speed wireless adapter

multiple monitors

 

22. Which memory technology allows two memory modules to be accessed at the same time?

dual channel*

double-sided

SRAM

ECC

 

23. Which security feature in modern CPUs protects memory areas that contain part of the operating system from malware attacks?

encryption

TPM

execute disable bit*

LoJack

 

24. Drag the description on left to its RAID level on the right.

25. Match the ports or cables with their descriptions. (Not all options are used.)

 

It-essentials v6.0 Pretest Exam 2018

1. What is an advantage of purchasing a tablet rather than a laptop computer?

wireless capability

reduced size/weight*

quicker Internet access

easier typing capabilities

faster processing speed

increased number of possible attached devices

 

2. What is a possible hardware upgrade that can be used to add more storage space to a modern smartphone?

microSD*

hard disk

CompactFlash

USB flash drive

3. Which component would be located inside the computer case?

monitor

printer

RAM*

USB hard drive

 

4. Which two devices are output devices? (Choose two.)

keyboard

monitor*

mouse

printer*

video camera

 

5. Which hardware component must be installed in a PC to provide network connectivity?

PCI bus

serial port

network interface*

expansion slot

 

6. Refer to the exhibit. What does the symbol shown represent?

a folder which is a collection of subfolders and files*

a Word document stored on the disk

a database file

a program that is used to navigate the files stored on a disk

 

7. How can a section of text in a Notepad document be highlighted to be copied to another location within the document?

click the Copy icon, then drag the pointer over the text to be copied

double-click the words to be copied

move the pointer to the start of the text to be copied, press the Windows key, move the pointer to the end of the text, and click the Copy icon

click at the start of the text, drag the pointer to the end of the text, then release the button*

 

8. Refer to the exhibit. Why is Undo in black, while the other items are in gray?

Commands are shown in black, while edit operations are shown in gray.

Groups of menu items alternate black and gray to make them easier to find.

There are no operations to undo, so this operation is unavailable.

There is no text to cut, copy, paste, or delete, so these operations are unavailable.*

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. What caused the pictured menu to appear on the user’s screen?

The user double-clicked a desktop icon.

The user right-clicked a desktop icon.*

The user highlighted an icon and then pressed Enter.

The user highlighted an icon and then pressed the Esc key.

 

10. Which two operating systems are used in smartphones? (Choose two.)

iOS*

OS X

Android*

Snow Leopard

Windows 7

 

11. A student purchased a new WiFi enabled tablet computer. What is required to connect this device to the Internet?

a 3G or 4G network

a telephone company

a wireless LAN*

a mobile phone service provider

 

12. Which two general precautions should be followed when using hand tools? (Choose two.)

Use tools that are the right size and right type.*

Always carry pointed tools by your side with the pointed end up.

Keep cutting tools sharp and in good condition.*

Carry the tools used most often in your pockets.

 

13. Which precaution should be taken before any electronic component is removed from a computer system?

place the computer on an insulating mat

make sure that the computer is unplugged*

attach a grounding wire to the case

use only approved metal tools

 

14. Which problem could occur if a screwdriver is used to pry the top off of a computer case?

The screwdriver could slip and cause harm to the technician or to nearby individuals.*

The screwdriver could cause deformation to the adapter cards.

The screwdriver could break and short out the motherboard.

The screwdriver could scratch the case, causing the motherboard to short circuit.

 

15. What would be the most environmentally friendly procedure to consider in the design of a server room?

Share one monitor with several servers.*

Implement power line conditioning and redundancy.

Filter the air in the room.

Maintain a constant room temperature throughout the year.

 

16. In the event that a mobile device is lost or stolen, which two procedures can help protect private information that is stored on the device? (Choose two.)

Use a secure email client.

Encrypt the storage media.*

Enable the device access password.*

Turn off the device when it is not in use.

Turn off the wireless connection when it is not in use.

 

17. What password would be considered a strong password?

password123

Excellent

18273645

Il0veMyj0b*

 

18. The failure rate in a certain brand of network interface card has been determined to be 15%. How many cards could be expected to fail in a company that has 80 of the cards installed?

8

10

12*

15

 

19. It is anticipated that a company-wide system upgrade will take approximately 60 person-hours to complete. How long will it take five technicians that each work the same amount of time to perform the refresh?

5 hours

8 hours

10 hours

12 hours*

 

20. A classmate is creating an imaginary language. Here are some words the classmate has created:

stalopheah means good day
stalopjink means goodness
drahplunk means light house
flinsjink means happiness
plunkgrecki means house fly

What would your classmate use to mean “daylight”?

jinkstalop

stalopflins

heahflins

heahdrah*

drahjink

heahgrecki

 

21. A user is looking for a wireless headphone for listening to songs stored on a smartphone. What wireless technology would the headphone use?

3G/4G

Wi-Fi

infrared

Bluetooth*

 

22. A customer connects a smartphone to a cloud service operated by the service provider. What can the cloud service provide to the customer?

phone calls

remote print

data storage*

device troubleshooting

 

23. What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 172.16.4.22?

255.255.255.255

255.255.255.0

255.255.0.0*

255.0.0.0

 

24. Which network protocol is used to automatically assign an IP address to a computer on a network?

FTP

DHCP*

ICMP

SMTP

APIPA

 

25. Match the icon to its likely associated use. (Not all options are used.)

p14-exa11-ccna1

 

26. Which type of interface should a customer choose if connecting a single cable from a Microsoft Windows computer to output both audio and video to a high definition television?

DVI

HDMI*

PS/2

DB-15

 

27. Which key or key sequence pressed during the boot process will allow a user to start a Windows PC using the last known good configuration?

F1

F8*

F12

Alt-Z

Windows key

 

28. A technician has installed a new sound card in a PC but it is not operating correctly. Where should the technician look to investigate driver problems?

Computer Management

Device Manager*

My Computer

System Tools

 

29. A technician notices that an application is not responding to commands and that the computer seems to respond slowly when applications are opened. What is the best administrative tool to force the release of system resources from the unresponsive application?

Task Manager*

Add or Remove Programs

Event Viewer

System Restore

 

30. Which action can reduce the risk of ESD damage when computer equipment is being worked on?

working on a grounded antistatic mat*

lowering the humidity level in the work area

moving cordless phones away from the work area

keeping the computer plugged into a surge protector

 

31. When should a technician avoid wearing an antistatic wrist strap?

when installing RAM

when replacing a power supply unit*

when installing a hard drive

when opening a computer case

 

32. What can be tested with a digital multimeter?

wireless signal strength and access point positioning

basic functionality of computer ports

copper cable location

quality of electricity in computer components*

 

33. A technician wants to allow users to backup and restore all the files on their computers, but does not want the users to be able to make changes to the system. How should the technician give users this functionality?

Grant the users read permissions on all files.

Give the users administrator rights on their computers.

Make the users members of a group called Backup Operators.*

Check the Folder is Ready for Archiving box in the properties of each folder.

 

34. What characterizes a DDoS attack?

Many hosts participate in a coordinated attack.*

Infected computers are called daemons.

It is easy to identify the source of the attack.

All hosts must be in the same geographic area.

 

35. Which is the correct procedure to put out a fire with a fire extinguisher after the pin is pulled?

Aim just above the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.

Aim at the base of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.*

Aim directly at the center of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.

Aim at the base of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from the base to the top of the flame.

Aim just above the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from the top to the base of the flame.

 

36. What type of device provides power to a computer and allows it to be safely shut down in the event of a power loss?

surge suppressor

uninterruptible power supply*

standby power supply

power inverter

 

37. Which measure can help control RFI effects on wireless networks?

Ensure the humidity and temperature levels are set as low as possible.

Ensure the number of wireless NICs exceeds the number of wireless phones.

Ensure the wireless network is on a different frequency than the offending source.*

Ensure each wireless NIC is configured to operate at different frequencies from all other wireless NICs.

 

38. A computer is assigned an IP address of 169.254.33.16. What can be said about the computer, based on the assigned address?

It cannot communicate outside its own network.*

It can communicate on the local network as well as on the Internet.

It can communicate with networks inside a particular company with subnets.

It has a public IP address that has been translated to a private IP address.

 

39. Several messages sent to the network administrator are reporting that access to a secure server using HTTPS is failing. After checking recent updates to the company firewall, the administrator learns that the firewall is blocking HTTPS. Which port should be opened to solve the problem?

22

53

80

143

443*

 

40. A network administrator has finished migrating from a peer-to-peer network to a new client-server network configuration. What are two advantages of the new configuration? (Choose two.)

The total cost of the new solution is considerably lower.

Data is more secure in the event of hardware failures.*

Individual users are in control of their own computers and network resources.

Data resources and access are centrally controlled.*

Personnel costs are lower because a dedicated network administrator is no longer necessary.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 (Option C)

CCNA 2 Routing and Switching Essentials v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018

(Option C)

1 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H3?

 1
1
2*    
3
4
5
6

2 Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

 

2

0.0.0.0

172.16.100.128* 

172.16.100.2

110

791

3 On which two routers would a default static route be configured? (Choose two.)

stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network*   

any router where a backup route to dynamic routing is needed for reliability

edge router connection to the ISP *  

any router running an IOS prior to 12.0
the router that serves as the gateway of last resort

4 Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

4

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1*   

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

5 Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

5

Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.

Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. *

Add an administrative distance of 254.

6 A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200* 

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

7 Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​

7 

Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.

Change the administrative distance to 1.

Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.

Change the administrative distance to 120.*

8 Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.* 

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9 Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve netw​ork security.*

They use fewer router resources.*   

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

10 Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?

10

RIPv2 does not support VLSM.

RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.

RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.*  

RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.

RIPv2 does not support discontiguous networks.

11 Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

11 
110
1*   
782
0

12 A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

default route

supernet route

ultimate route*   

parent route

level 2 child route*

13 Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*   

ISP selection

speed of convergence*  

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

14 What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains

aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries

provides access to the user*   

provides fault isolation

15 What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?    

access* 

core

data link

network

network access

16 What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?

Drop the frame.

Send the frame to the default gateway address.

Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame.

Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received.*

17 Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

collision detecting

frame error checking* 

faster frame forwarding

frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

18 Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching* 

19 In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed* 

when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

20 A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address*   

VTP domain

vty lines*  

default VLAN

default gateway*  

loopback address

21 As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses*

22 A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?

off

restrict

protect* 

shutdown

23 What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.*

24 Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

24 
1
2
3
4
5
6* 

25 Which statement describes a characteristic of the extended range VLANs that are created on a Cisco 2960 switch?

They are numbered VLANs 1002 to 1005.

They cannot be used across multiple switches.

They are reserved to support Token Ring VLANs.

They are not stored in the vlan.dat file.* 

26 A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk***

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

27 A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2

172.16.26.254

172.16.47.254* 

172.16.48.5

28 The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list  standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

29 A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*  

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

30 What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased*   

to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

for hosts on other subnets to receive the information

for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

31 What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 inclusive.*    

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

32 A host on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN is not being assigned an IPv4 address by an enterprise DHCP server with the address 10.10.200.10/24. What is the best way for the network engineer to resolve this problem?

Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.*    

Issue the command default-router 10.10.200.10 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.100.0 on the router interface that is the 10.10.200.0/24 gateway.

Issue the command network 10.10.200.0 255.255.255.0 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

33 What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface* 

a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

34 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

34
ipv6 unicast-routing
dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​
ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​
ipv6 nd other-config-flag*​  
prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70

35 Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

35
10.130.5.76
209.165.200.245
203.0.113.5*  
172.16.1.10
192.0.2.1
209.165.200.226

36 Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on RT1 and RT2. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between RT2 and the web server?

 36

192.0.2.2

172.16.1.10

203.0.113.10

172.16.1.254

192.168.1.5

209.165.200.245*

37 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

37
The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.* 
The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.*   
The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.
Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.
The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.

38 Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

38
10.0.0.31
172.16.12.5
172.16.12.33
172.16.25.35 *
192.168.1.10

39 What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*  
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

40 A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

show ip protocols
show ip interface
show cdp neighbors*   
show port-security
show mac-address-table

41 What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting*
to select the type of logging information that is captured*
to specify the destinations of captured messages* 
to periodically poll agents for data
to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device
to provide traffic analysis

42 A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?

System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.
System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.
System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.* 
System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.

43 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.*  
This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.
This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.
This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

44 What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.* 
It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.

45 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

45

The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.
The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.
The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.* 
The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

46 Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

46

host B
host C*
host D* 
host E
host F* 
host G

47 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the

47

R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

192.168.9.254

192.168.10.1

192.168.10.2

192.168.11.252*  

192.168.11.254

48 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

48 
because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

because VLAN 99 has not yet been created*

49 Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are uesd.)

49

50 Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

50

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 (Option B)

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 (Option B)

1 Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

1

 
Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10*

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

2 What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

to enable the router as an IPv6 router*

to permit only unicast packets on the router

to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

3 What is a characteristic of a static route that creates a gateway of last resort?

It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.

It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.* 

It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

4 Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

4

 
S   10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2*  
S   0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2
C   10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
S   10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

5 Refer to the exhibit. Which command will properly configure an IPv6 static route on R2 that will allow traffic from PC2 to reach PC1 without any recursive lookups by router R2?

5

 
R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32::1

R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0 *

R2(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:32::1

R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1

6 A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200 *

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

7 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?

7
The network prefix is incorrect.

The destination network is incorrect.

The interface is incorrect. *

The next hop address is incorrect.

8 Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9 Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve netw​ork security. *

They use fewer router resources. *

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

10 To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 172.16.64.32 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

172.16.64.32

172.16.64.0

172.16.0.0*   

No address is displayed.

11 Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

11
110

1*   

782

0

12 Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?

a level 1 child route

a level 1 parent route

a level 1 ultimate route*  

a level 2 supernet route

13 Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*  

ISP selection

speed of convergence*  

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

14 Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

distribution

data link

physical

access*   

core

15 Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

a collapsed core network design*    

a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

16 Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*    

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

17 Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

collision detecting

frame error checking*   

faster frame forwarding

frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

18 Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching occurs with lower latency.

Frames are forwarded without any error checking.*    

Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.

19 What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

The number of broadcast domains is increased.

The size of the broadcast domain is increased.* 

The number of collision domains is reduced.

The size of the collision domain is increased.

20 In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed*  

when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

21 A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address*

VTP domain

vty lines*  

default VLAN

default gateway *  

loopback address

22 As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses*

23 A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

off

restrict

protect *

shutdown

24 Which commands are used to re-enable a port that has been disabled as a result of a port security violation?

shutdown
no shutdown*

shutdown
no switchport port-security

shutdown
no switchport port-security violation shutdown

shutdown
no switchport port-security maximum

25 Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.* 

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

26 Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

user-generated

tagged

untagged *

management

27 An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.

These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.

These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.

Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.*

28 Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?

 28
The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.

The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.*   

The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​

The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.

29 A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2

172.16.26.254

172.16.36.255* 

172.16.48.5

30 The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list  standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

31 A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*  

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

32 Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1****

dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

33 Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

 33

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.*

34 What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface*  

a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

35 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

 35
ipv6 unicast-routing

dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

ipv6 nd other-config-flag​*  

prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70

36 Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

 36
10.130.5.76

209.165.200.245

203.0.113.5 *  

172.16.1.10

192.0.2.1

209.165.200.226

37 Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Telnet

IPsec * 

HTTP

ICMP

DNS

38 A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

an IPv4 address pool

an ACL to identify the local IPv4 address of the web server

the keyword overload for the ip nat inside source command

the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses*

39 Which configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload***

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload
ip nat inside source static 10.0.0.5 209.165.200.225

40 What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses. * 

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

41 Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

 41

The NAT pool has been exhausted. *

The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.

Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.

42 A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

show ip protocols

show ip interface

show cdp neighbors*   

show port-security

show mac-address-table

43 Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.*  

The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.

An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.*  

The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

44 A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?

System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.

System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.

System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.*  

System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.


45 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

 
This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.*  

This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.


46 What is indicated by the M in the Cisco IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin?

a maintenance deployment release

a minor release

a mainline release

an extended maintenance release*

47 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is preparing to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. Based on the output shown, how much space is available for the new image?

 47

25574400 bytes

249856000 bytes

221896413 bytes*    

33591768 bytes


48 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

 48

because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface

because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command* 


49 Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

 
50 Order the DHCP process steps. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 (Option A)

CCNA 2 Routing and Switching Essentials v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018

(Option A)

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

0.0.0.0

172.16.100.64*

172.16.100.2

110

791

2.

p2

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

1

2*

3

4

5

6

 

3. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

standard static route

floating static route*

default static route

summary static route

4.

p4

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

C 172.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2*

S 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

5. What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

::/128

::/0*

::1/64

FFFF::/128

6. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

7.

p7

Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100*

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

8. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve network security.*

They use fewer router resources.*

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

10. A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?

The router will be reset to the default factory information.

The router will not forward routing information that is learned from other routers.

The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present.*

The router will only forward packets that originate on directly connected networks.

11.

p11

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

1*

0

90

20512256

12. A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

default route

supernet route

ultimate route*

parent route

level 2 child route*

13. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*

ISP selection

speed of convergence*

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

14. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

distribution

data link

physical

access*

core

15. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus

provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies*

distributes access to end users

represents the network edge

16. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

17. Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?

Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.*

Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.

Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

18. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching*

19. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed*

when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

20. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address*

VTP domain

vty lines*

default VLAN

default gateway*

loopback address

21. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses*

22. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

off

restrict

protect*

shutdown

23. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict*

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

24.

p24

Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

Spanning Tree

RIP v2

IEEE 802.1Q*

ARP

Rapid Spanning Tree

25. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.

Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.*

Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

26. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.*

Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.

Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.

The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

27.

p27

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

It identifies the subinterface.

It identifies the VLAN number.*

It identifies the native VLAN number.

It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.

28. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

0.0.0.127

0.0.0.255

0.0.1.255*

0.0.255.255

A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

29. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

30. A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

31.What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased*

to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

for hosts on other subnets to receive the information

for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

32. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1*

dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

33. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip dhcp pool

ip address dhcp*

service dhcp

ip helper-address

34.

p34

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

35.

p35

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

ipv6 unicast-routing

dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

ipv6 nd other-config-flag​*

prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​

36.

p36

Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

10.130.5.76

209.165.200.245

203.0.113.5*

172.16.1.10

192.0.2.1

209.165.200.226

37.

p37

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.*

The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.*

The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.

Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.

The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.

38.

p38

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration incorrect?

The static NAT entry is missing.

NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.*

The ACL does not define the list of addresses to be translated.

The overload keyword should not have been applied.

39. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365*

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary

40.

p40

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses

PAT using an external interface*

static NAT with one entry

static NAT with a NAT pool

41.

p41

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.*

The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

42. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

show ip protocols

show ip interface

show cdp neighbors*

show port-security

show mac-address-table

43. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.*

The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.

An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.*

The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

44. What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting*

to select the type of logging information that is captured*

to specify the destinations of captured messages*

to periodically poll agents for data

to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

to provide traffic analysis

45.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.*

This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

46. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

Software Claim Certificate

End User License Agreement

Unique Device Identifier

Product Activation Key*

47.

p47

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

192.168.9.254

192.168.10.1

192.168.10.2

192.168.11.252*

192.168.11.254

48. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
full operating system -> flash
limited operating system -> ROM
routing table -> RAM
startup configuration file -> NVRAM

49. Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are used.)

C CCNA 2 v6 final p49
Place the options in the following order: 
hierarchical 
modularity 
resiliency 
– not scored – 
flexibility

50. Match the description to the correct VLAN type. (Not all options are used.)

 

A CCNA 2 v6 final p50

B CCNA 2 v6 final p50

51.  Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

management

user-generated

tagged

untagged*

CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 6 PT Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer

Leaderboard: CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 6 PT Practice Skills Assessment

Topology

new-ccna-1-ch6-skill-type-C

You will receive one of three possible topologies

Addressing Table

Device Interface Address Subnet Mask Default Gateway
College G0/0 172.16.5.1 255.255.255.0 N/A
G0/1 192.168.5.1 255.255.255.0 N/A
Faculty VLAN 1 172.16.5.2 255.255.255.0  172.16.5.1
Admin VLAN 1 192.168.5.252 255.255.255.0  192.168.5.1
Prof X NIC 172.16.5.10 255.255.255.0  172.16.5.1
Prof Y NIC 172.16.5.11 255.255.255.0  172.16.5.1
Dean X NIC 192.168.5.10 255.255.255.0  192.168.5.1
Dean Y NIC 192.168.5.11 255.255.255.0  192.168.5.1

Objectives

• Perform basic device configuration tasks on a router and a switch
• Configure IP addressing settings on network devices
• Venfy Layer 3 connectivity and troubleshoot connectivity issues

Scenario

You are working on a network that has already been partially configured In this assessment you will complete a set of requirements by configunng some additional settings on the Faculty switch and the router. Use the knowledge that you have gained in the curnculum and labs to fulfill the requirements below

Note: If you need a value that is not given to you, you can use any value you want However, you must use the correct values for the default gateways in order that the hosts can communicate.

Requirements

• Determine the values that are missing from the Addressing Table
• Configure all devices with the missing default gateway values
• Name the Faculty switch Faculty Your configuration must match this value exactly
• Secure access to all configuration lines of the Faculty switch
• Secure access to the device configurations of the Faculty switch using the encrypted password
• Ensure that all plain text passwords on the Faculty switch are encrypted
• Configure an appropriate banner on the Faculty switch
• Configure addressing for all devices according to the Addressing Table Most values are provided in the table, others you must determine
• Document interfaces with descnptions on the College router interfaces and the Faculty switch virtual interface
• Save your configurations
• Venfy connectivity between all devices All devices should be able to ping all of the other devices
• Troubleshoot any connectivity problems

All devices should be able to ping one another when you have successfully completed the activity.

College Router Configuration

Router>enable
Router#configure terminal

Router(config)#hostname College

College(config)#enable secret cisco

College(config)#line console 0
College(config-line)#password cisco
College(config-line)#login
College(config-line)#exit

College(config)#line vty 0 4
College(config-line)#password cisco
College(config-line)#login
College(config-line)#exit

College(config)#line aux 0
College(config-line)#password cisco
College(config-line)#login
College(config-line)#exit

College(config)#service password-encryption

College(config)#banner motd $Authorized Personnel Only$

College(config)#interface g0/0
College(config-if)#ip address 172.16.5.1 255.255.255.0
College(config-if)#no shutdown
College(config-if)#description Faculty LAN
College(config-if)#exit

College(config)#interface g0/1
College(config-if)#ip address 192.168.5.1 255.255.255.0
College(config-if)#no shutdown
College(config-if)#description Admin LAN
College(config-if)#exit
College(config)#end
College#write Building configuration… [OK]

Faculty Switch Configuration

Switch>enable
Switch#configure terminal

Switch(config)#hostname Faculty

Faculty(config)#enable secret class

Faculty(config)#line console 0
Faculty(config-line)#password cisco
Faculty(config-line)#login
Faculty(config-line)#exit

Faculty(config)#line vty 0 4
Faculty(config-line)#password cisco
Faculty(config-line)#login
Faculty(config-line)#exit

Faculty(config)#service password-encryption

Faculty(config)#banner motd $Authorized Personnel Only$

Faculty(config)#interface vlan 1
Faculty(config-if)#ip address 172.16.5.2 255.255.255.0
Faculty(config-if)#no shutdown
Faculty(config-if)#description Faculty – College LAN
Faculty(config-if)#exit

Faculty(config)#ip default-gateway 172.16.5.1

Faculty(config)#end
Faculty#write
Building configuration…
[OK]

Admin Switch Configuration

Switch>enable
Switch#configure terminal

Switch(config)#hostname Admin

Admin(config)#enable secret class

Admin(config)#line console 0
Admin(config-line)#password cisco
Admin(config-line)#login
Admin(config-line)#exit

Admin(config)#line vty 0 4
Admin(config-line)#password cisco
Admin(config-line)#login
Admin(config-line)#exit

Admin(config)#service password-encryption

Admin(config)#banner motd $Authorized Personnel Only$

Admin(config)#interface vlan 1
Admin(config-if)#ip address 192.168.5.252 255.255.255.0
Admin(config-if)#no shutdown
Admin(config-if)#description Admin – College LAN
Admin(config-if)#exit

Admin(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.5.1
Admin(config)#end

Admin#write
Building configuration…
[OK]

Prof X

IP Address: 172.16.5.10
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 172.16.5.1

Prof Y

IP Address: 172.16.5.11
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 172.16.5.1

Dean X

IP Address: 192.168.5.10
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.5.1

Dean Y

IP Address: 192.168.5.11
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.5.1

CCNA1 v5.1 + v6.0 Final Exam Answers (100%)

1. Which two roles can a computer assume in a peer-to-peer network where a file is being shared between two computers? (Choose two.)

client*

master

server*

slave

transient

2. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?

to request an HTML page from a web server*

to send error information from a web server to a web client

to upload content to a web server from a web client

to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110

3. When planning for network growth, where in the network should packet captures take place to assess network traffic?

on as many different network segments as possible*

only at the edge of the network

between hosts and the default gateway

only on the busiest network segment

4. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?

a network that protects confidential information from unauthorized access

a network that can expand quickly to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service delivered to existing users

a network that supports a mechanism for managing congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all users

a network that recovers quickly when a failure occurs and depends on redundancy to limit the impact of a failure*

5. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page*

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions

financial transactions, audio conference, web page

6. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.

Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.*

Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.

Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

7. What is the function of the shell in an OS?

It interacts with the device hardware.

It interfaces between the users and the kernel.*

It provides dedicated firewall services.

It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.

8. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*


9. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.*

The command syntax is wrong.

The subnet mask information is incorrect.

The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.

10. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

to restart the ping process

to interrupt the ping process*

to exit to a different configuration mode

to allow the user to complete the command

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

12. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

FastEthernet0/1

VLAN 1*

vty 0

console 0

13. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?

TCP*

IP

HTTP

Ethernet

14. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

A company can monopolize the market.

The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.

An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.

It encourages competition and promotes choices.*

15. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

It assists in protocol design.*

It speeds up packet delivery.

It prevents designers from creating their own model.

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.*

It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

16. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

data link

network*

physical

session

transport*

17. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

bits

data

frame

packet

segment*

18. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

presentation layer

network layer

physical layer*

data link layer

19. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

20. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation*

cladding

immunity to electrical hazards

woven copper braid or metallic foil

21. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*

Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.

It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.

It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.

It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.*

22. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.

It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*

It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

23. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?

mesh

partial mesh*

hub and spoke

point-to-point

24. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

CSMA/CD

priority ordering

CSMA/CA*

token passing

25. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

error correction through a collision detection method

session control using port numbers

data link layer addressing*

placement and removal of frames from the media

detection of errors through CRC calculations*

delimiting groups of bits into frames*

conversion of bits into data signals

26. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.*

It will forward the frame to the next host.

It will remove the frame from the media.

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

27. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

cut-through switching

store-and-forward switching*

fragment-free switching

fast-forward switching

28. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD

172.168.10.99

CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC

172.168.10.65

BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB*

AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA

29. What addresses are mapped by ARP?

destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address*

destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address

destination IPv4 address to the destination host name

destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address

30. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)

performing error detection

routing packets toward the destination*

encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer*

placement of frames on the media

collision detection

31. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

to store the routing table

to retain contents when power is removed*

to store the startup configuration file*

to contain the running configuration file

to store the ARP table

32. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.

The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.*

33. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

192.0.2.199

198.51.100.201

203.0.113.211*

209.165.201.223

34. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*

Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*

Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

35. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8*

64.100.0.0/14

127.16.0.0/12

172.16.0.0/12*

192.31.7.0/24

192.168.0.0/16*

36. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.*

It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.

It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.

It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the Internet.

It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for automatic host addressing.

37. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?

2001:0:abcd::1

2001:0:0:abcd::1*

2001::abcd::1

2001:0000:abcd::1

2001::abcd:0:1

38. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

FEC0::/10

FDEE::/7

FE80::/10*

FF00::/8

39. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?

254

190

192

62*

64

40. A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must accommodate 126 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that contains the required number of host bits?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128*

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.240

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

42. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

43. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.

A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.

A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.*

A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

44. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify which of the three web browsers should receive the reply?

the destination IP address

the destination port number*

the source IP address

the source port number

45. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

to identify missing segments at the destination*

to reassemble the segments at the remote location*

to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination

to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time

to determine if the packet changed during transit

47. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

compression*

addressing

encryption*

session control

authentication

48. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?

wireless networking

social networking without the Internet

network printing using a print server

resource sharing without a dedicated server*

49. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

tracert

ipconfig

netstat

nslookup*

 

50. Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?

www.cisco.com

cisco.com

.com*

root.cisco.com

51. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?

The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.

The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.

The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.*

The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

52. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

FTP

HTTP

DHCP*

ICMP

SNMP

53. Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?

malware that was written to look like a video game*

malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems

malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when launched

malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target

54. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

exec-timeout 30

service password-encryption

banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

55. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (not all options are used.)

56. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

57. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

LAN

MAN

WAN*

WLAN

58. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

59. How does quality of service help a network support a wide range of applications and services?

by limiting the impact of a network failure

by allowing quick recovery from network failures

by providing mechanisms to manage congested network traffic*

by providing the ability for the network to grow to accommodate new users

60. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

FastEthernet0/1

VLAN 1*

vty 0

console 0

61. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

62. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin*

lineconin

linevtyin  

63. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

64. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

65. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.*

The command syntax is wrong.

The subnet mask information is incorrect.

The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.

66. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.

It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.

It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*

67. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?

TCP*

IP

HTTP

Ethernet

68. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?

internet*

transport

network access

session

69. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?

Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.

Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.

Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.*

Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.

70. What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC and used for communication on an Ethernet network?

host address

IP address

MAC address*

network address

71. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

presentation layer

network layer

physical layer*

data link layer

72. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

73. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

requiring proper grounding connections

twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*

wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding

designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference

avoiding sharp bends during installation

74. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.

It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*

It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

75. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

CSMA/CD

priority ordering

CSMA/CA*

token passing

76. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?

An IP address is added.

The logical address is added.

The physical address is added.*

The process port number is added.

77. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

error correction through a collision detection method

session control using port numbers

data link layer addressing*

placement and removal of frames from the media

detection of errors through CRC calculations*

delimiting groups of bits into frames*

conversion of bits into data signals

78. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

They are globally unique.*

They are routable on the Internet.

They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.*

MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.

MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and serial interfaces on a device.

79. If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes, what will it do?

drop the frame*

process the frame as it is

send an error message to the sending device

add random data bytes to make it 64 bytes long and then forward it

80. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.*

It will forward the frame to the next host.

It will remove the frame from the media.

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

81. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)

The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.*

The destination address is unknown to the switch.*

The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.

The source address in the frame is a multicast address.

The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.

82. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

cut-through

store-and-forward

fragment-free

fast-forward*

83. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

netstat -s

route print*

show ip route

netstat -r*

tracert

84. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet forwarding*

microsegmentation

domain name resolution

path selection*

flow control

85. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8*

64.100.0.0/14

127.16.0.0/12

172.16.0.0/12*

192.31.7.0/24

192.168.0.0/16*

86. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.*

It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.

It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.

It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the Internet.

It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for automatic host addressing.

87. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

10111010

11010101

11001010*

11011010

 

88. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local*

unique local

site local

global unicast

89. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?

stateful DHCPv6

SLAAC*

static IPv6 addressing

stateless DHCPv6

90. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?

It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.*

It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.

It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.

It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.

91. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

256

254

62

30*

16

32

92. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

93. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.240*

255.255.255.248

255.255.255.252

94. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

95. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128

255.255.255.192*

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.240

96. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

default window size

connectionless communication

port numbering*

3-way handshake

ability to to carry digitized voice

use of checksum*

97. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment

to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment

to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data

to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application*

to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

98. Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

DNS*

Ethernet

IP

POP*

TCP

UDP

99. What is one difference between the client-server and peer-to-peer network models?

Only in the client-server model can file transfers occur.

Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function as a client or a server.*

A peer-to-peer network transfers data faster than a transfer using a client-server network.

A data transfer that uses a device serving in a client role requires that a dedicated server be present.

100. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?

peer-to-peer

master-slave

client/server*

point-to-point

101. What network service resolves the URL entered on a PC to the IP address of the destination server?

DNS*

DHCP

FTP

SNMP

102. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?

a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output

a next-hop timeout from a traceroute

an increase in host-to-host ping response times*

a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output

103. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?

stateful packet inspection*

URL filtering

application filtering

packet filtering

104. Fill in the blank.
During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a   “Multicast”       message.

105. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

 

106. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?

DSL

dialup

satellite

leased line*

cable modem

107. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices

to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally

to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

108. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?

reliability

scalability*

quality of service

accessibility

109. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

110. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.*

The command syntax is wrong.

The subnet mask information is incorrect.

The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.

111. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?

flash

ROM

NVRAM*

RAM

the configuration register

a TFTP server

112. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

The banner message is too long.

The delimiting character appears in the banner message.*

The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.

Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console port.

113. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)

It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.

It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.*

It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.

It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.

It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.*

It is associated with VLAN1 by default.*

114. A technician configures a switch with these commands:SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1 
SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 
SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdownWhat is the technician configuring?

Telnet access

SVI*

password encryption

physical switchport access

115. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission*

to interpret information

to break large messages into smaller frames

to negotiate correct timing for successful communication

116. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?

TCP*

IP

HTTP

Ethernet

117. What is the process of dividing a data stream into smaller pieces before transmission?

segmentation*

encapsulation

encoding

flow control

118. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?

DNS server address

subnet mask*

default gateway

DHCP server address

119. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

presentation layer

network layer

physical layer*

data link layer

120. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

121. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

console

rollover

crossover

straight-through*

122. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.

It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*

It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

123. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

error correction through a collision detection method

session control using port numbers

data link layer addressing*

placement and removal of frames from the media

detection of errors through CRC calculations*

delimiting groups of bits into frames*

conversion of bits into data signals

124. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.*

It will forward the frame to the next host.

It will remove the frame from the media.

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

125. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table*

forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway

utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address*

examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

126. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

store-and-forward switching

fast-forward switching*

CRC switching

fragment-free switching*

QOS switching

127. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC

source and destination application protocol

source and destination port number

source and destination IP address*

128. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

subnet mask

DNS address

host IP address

default gateway address*

129. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

to identify the broadcast address of the destination network

to identify the host address of the destination host

to identify faulty frames

to identify the network address of the destination network*

130. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8*

64.100.0.0/14

127.16.0.0/12

172.16.0.0/12*

192.31.7.0/24

192.168.0.0/16*

131. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)

198.133.219.17*

192.168.1.245

10.15.250.5

128.107.12.117*

192.15.301.240

64.104.78.227*

132. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

loopback

link-local*

multicast

global unicast

133. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.

There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

This host does not have a default gateway configured.

134. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

135. How many hosts are addressable on a network that has a mask of 255.255.255.248?

2

6*

8

14

16

254

136. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

137. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address of 192.168.10.0/24 that has been assigned to a high school building. The largest network in this building has 100 devices. If 192.168.10.0 is the network number for the largest network, what would be the network number for the next largest network, which has 40 devices?

192.168.10.0

192.168.10.128*

192.168.10.192

192.168.10.224

192.168.10.240

138. In what two situations would UDP be the preferred transport protocol over TCP? (Choose two.)

when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated

when a faster delivery mechanism is needed*

when delivery overhead is not an issue

when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data*

when destination port numbers are dynamic

139. What important information is added to the TCP/IP transport layer header to ensure communication and connectivity with a remote network device?

timing and synchronization

destination and source port numbers*

destination and source physical addresses

destination and source logical network addresses

140. What is the TCP mechanism used in congestion avoidance?

three-way handshake

socket pair

two-way handshake

sliding window*

141. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.*

UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.

UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.*

UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.*

UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.

UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.

142. Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

DNS*

Ethernet

IP

POP*

TCP

UDP

 

143. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

Connectivity to the remote device was successful.

A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.*

A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.

The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.

144. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

145. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

 

146. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

CCNA 1 v6.0 ITN Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer Final Exam

 CCNA 1 v6.0 ITN Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer Final Exam .PKZ

 https://mega.nz/#!l4IjEZSB!iBXtmxlfmtnMVBuFVTnQ3BAgnNvTGwSd_9DChi_PokE  

ITN Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer Option A

Download  CCNA 1 v6.0 ITN Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer Final Exam .PKZ

CCNA-1-Final-Exam-Packet-Tracer

A few things to keep in mind while completing this activity:
1. Do not use the browser Back button or close or reload any exam windows during the exam.
2. Do not close Packet Tracer when you are done. It will close automatically.
3. Click the Submit Assessment button in the browser window to submit your work.

Introduction

In this assessment, you will configure devices in an IPv4/IPv6 network. For the sake of time, you will not be asked to perform all configurations on all network devices as you may be required to do in a real network or other assessment. Instead, you will use the skills and knowledge that you have learned in the labs in this course to configure the Town Hall router . In addition, you will address the hosts on two LANs with IPv4 and IPv6 addresses, activate and address the management interface of the Administration Switch , and back up a device configuration to a TFTP server.

You will receive one of several topologies.

You are not required to configure the IT Department Switch, and you will not be able to access it in this practice skills assessment activity.

All IOS device configurations should be completed from a direct terminal connection to the device console. In addition, many values that are required to complete the configurations have not been given to you. In those cases, create the values that you need to complete the requirements. For values that have been supplied to you, they must be entered exactly as they appear in order for you to get full credit for your configuration.

You will practice and be assessed on the following skills: 
• Configuration of initial IOS device settings
• Design and calculation of IPv4 addressing
• Configuration of IOS device interfaces including IPv4 and IPv6 addressing when appropriate
• Addressing of network hosts with IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
• Enhancing device security, including configuration of the secure transport protocol for remote device configuration
• Configuration of a switch management interface

Requirements by device:

Town Hall router :

• Configuration of initial router settings
• Interface configuration and IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
• Device security enhancement or device hardening
• Secure transport for remote configuration connections as covered in the labs
• Backup of the configuration file to a TFTP server

Administration Switch :

• Enabling basic remote management by Telnet

PC and Server hosts:

• IPv4 full addressing
• IPv6 addressing

Addressing Table

Instructions

Step 1: Determine the IP Addressing Scheme.

Design an IPv4 addressing scheme and complete the Addressing Table based on the following requirements. Use the table to help you organize your work.

a. Subnet the 192.168.1.0/24 network to provide 30 host addresses per subnet while wasting the fewest addresses.
b. Assign the fourth subnet to the IT Department LAN.
c. Assign the last network host address (the highest) in this subnet to the G0/0 interface on Town Hall/CS Department . (192.168.1.126)
d. Starting with the fifth subnet, subnet the network again so that the new subnets will provide 14 host addresses per subnet while wasting the fewest addresses.
e. Assign the second of these new 14-host subnets to the Administration LAN.
f. Assign the last network host address (the highest) in the Administration LAN subnet to the G0/1interface of the Town Hall router. (192.168.1.158)
g. Assign the second to the last address (the second highest) in this subnet to the VLAN 1 interface of the Administration Switch . (192.168.1.157)
h. Configure addresses on the hosts using any of the remaining addresses in their respective subnets.

Step 2: Configure the Town Hall router .

a. Configure the Town Hall router  with all initial configurations that you have learned in the course so far:
• Configure the router hostname: Middle
• Protect device configurations from unauthorized access with the encrypted privileged exec password.
• Secure all access lines into the router using methods covered in the course and labs.
• Require newly-entered passwords must have a minimum length of 10 characters.
• Prevent all passwords from being viewed in clear text in device configuration files.
• Configure the router to only accept in-band management connections over the protocol that is more secure than Telnet, as was done in the labs. Use the value 1024 for encryption key strength.
• Configure local user authentication for in-band management connections. Create a user with the name netadmin and a secret password of Cisco_CCNA5 Give the user the highest administrative privileges. Your answer must match these values exactly.
b. Configure the two Gigabit Ethernet interfaces using the IPv4 addressing values you calculated and the IPv6 values provided in the addressing table.
• Reconfigure the link local addresses to the value shown in the table.
• Document the interfaces in the configuration file.

Step 3: Configure the Administration Switch .

Configure Administration Switch  for remote management over Telnet.

Step 4: Configure and Verify Host Addressing.

a. Use the IPv4 addressing from Step 1 and the IPv6 addressing values provided in the addressing table to configure all host PCs with the correct addressing.
b. Use the router interface link-local address as the IPv6 default gateways on the hosts.

Step 5: Backup the Configuration of the Town Hall router  to TFTP.

a. Complete the configuration of the TFTP server using the IPv4 addressing values from Step 1 and the values in the addressing table.
b. Backup the running configuration of Town Hall  to the TFTP Server. Use the default file name.

Answer:

Town Hall router

Router>enable
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#hostname Middle
Middle(config)#enable secret class
Middle(config)#service password-encryption
Middle(config)#banner motd "Authorized Access Only"
Middle(config)#security passwords min-length 10
Middle(config)#login block-for 120 attempts 2 within 30
Middle(config)#no ip domain-lookup
Middle(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com
Middle(config)#crypto key generate rsa
The name for the keys will be: Middle.cisco.com
How many bits in the modulus [512]: 1024


Middle(config)#line console 0
Middle(config-line)#password cisco12345
Middle(config-line)#login
Middle(config-line)#logging synchronous
Middle(config-line)#exec-timeout 60
Middle(config-line)#exit


Middle(config)#line vty 0 15
Middle(config-line)#password cisco12345
Middle(config-line)#transport input ssh
Middle(config-line)#login local
Middle(config-line)#logging synchronous
Middle(config-line)#exec-timeout 60
Middle(config-line)#exit


Middle(config)#line aux 0
Middle(config-line)#password cisco12345
Middle(config-line)#login
Middle(config-line)#logging synchronous
Middle(config-line)#exec-timeout 60
Middle(config-line)#exit


Middle(config)#ip ssh version 2
Middle(config)#ip ssh time-out 120
Middle(config)#username netadmin privilege 15 secret Cisco_CCNA5


Middle(config)#interface g0/0
Middle(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.126 255.255.255.224
Middle(config-if)#description IT Department LAN
Middle(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::1/64
Middle(config-if)#ipv6 address fe80::1 link-local
Middle(config-if)#no shutdown
Middle(config-if)#exit


Middle(config)#interface g0/1
Middle(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.158 255.255.255.240
Middle(config-if)#description Administration LAN
Middle(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:B::1/64
Middle(config-if)#ipv6 address fe80::1 link-local
Middle(config-if)#no shutdown
Middle(config-if)#exit
Middle(config)#ipv6 unicast-routing
Middle(config)#exit
Middle#write

Administration Switch

Switch>enable
Switch#conf terminal
Switch(config)#interface Vlan1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.157 255.255.255.240
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# exit
Switch(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.158
Switch(config)#
Switch(config)#line vty 0 4
Switch(config-line)# password cisco12345
Switch(config-line)# login
Switch(config-line)#end
Switch#write

Reception Host

IPv4 192.168.1.97 255.255.255.224
Gateway-v4 192.168.1.126
IPv6 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::FF/64
Gateway-v6 FE80::1

Operator Host

IPv4 192.168.1.98 255.255.255.224
Gateway-v4 192.168.1.126
IPv6 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::15/64
Gateway-v6 FE80::1

IT Host

IPv4 192.168.1.145 255.255.255.240
Gateway-v4 192.168.1.158
IPv6 2001:DB8:ACAD:B::FF/64
Gateway-v6 FE80::1

TFTP Server

IPv4 192.168.1.146 255.255.255.240
Gateway-v4 192.168.1.158
IPv6 2001:DB8:ACAD:B::15/64
Gateway-v6 FE80::1

Backup the Configuration of the Town Hall router to TFTP.

Middle#copy running-config tftp: 
Address or name of remote host []? 192.168.1.146
Destination filename [Middle-confg]? 
Press Enter

CCNA 4 v6.0 Final Exam Answers Option C

1. What is a primary difference between a company LAN and the WAN services that it uses?

The company must subscribe to an external WAN service provider.*

The company has direct control over its WAN links but not over its LAN.

Each LAN has a specified demarcation point to clearly separate access layer and distribution layer equipment.

The LAN may use a number of different network access layer standards whereas the WAN will use only one standard.

2. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*

when the network will span multiple buildings

when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN

3.To which two layers of the OSI model do WAN technologies provide services? (Choose two.)

network layer

session layer

physical layer*

transport layer

data link layer*

presentation layer

4. Which two technologies are private WAN technologies? (Choose two.)

cable

Frame Relay*

DSL

ATM*

cellular

5. Which WAN technology can switch any type of payload based on labels?

PSTN

DSL

MPLS*

T1/E1

6. What technology can be used to create a private WAN via satellite communications?

VPN

3G/4G cellular

dialup

VSAT*

WiMAX

7. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection?

ISDN

DSL*

dialup

cable

8. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

dial-up connection

leased line connection

site-to-site VPN over the Internet

remote access VPN over the Internet*

9. How many DS0 channels are bounded to produce a 1.544 Mb/s DS1 line?

2

12

24*

28

10. Refer to the exhibit.

Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset

unplugged cable

improper cable type

PPP issue*

11. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of Layer 2 encapsulation used for connection D requires Cisco routers?

Ethernet

PPPoE

HDLC*

PPP

12. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.*

PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.

PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*

PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.*

13. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:

R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70

What is the effect of these commands?

The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*

The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

14. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

establishes identities with a two-way handshake

uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities*

control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events

transmits login information in encrypted format*

uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks*

makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

15. Which cellular or mobile wireless standard is considered a fourth generation technology?

LTE*

GSM

CDMA

UMTS

16. A company is looking for the least expensive broadband solution that provides at least 10 Mb/s download speed. The company is located 5 miles from the nearest provider. Which broadband solution would be appropriate?

satellite

DSL

WiMax

cable*

17. Which technology can ISPs use to periodically challenge broadband customers over DSL networks with PPPoE?

PAP

CHAP*

HDLC

Frame Relay

18. What are the three core components of the Cisco ACI architecture? (Choose three.)

Application Network Profile*

Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*

Cisco Nexus Switches*

Microsoft hypervisor

Cisco Information Server

Virtual Security Gateway

19. Which statement describes a feature of site-to-site VPNs?

The VPN connection is not statically defined.

VPN client software is installed on each host.

Internal hosts send normal, unencapsulated packets.*

Individual hosts can enable and disable the VPN connection.

20. What are three features of a GRE tunnel? (Choose three.)

creates nonsecure tunnels between remote sites*

transports multiple Layer 3 protocols*

creates additional packet overhead*

uses RSA signatures to authenticate peeers

provides encryption to keep VPN traffic confidential

supports hosts as GRE tunnel endpoints by installing Cisco VPN client software

21. Refer to the exhibit.

What two commands are needed to complete the GRE tunnel configuration on router R1? (Choose two.)

R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.129*

R1(config-if)# tunnel source 172.16.2.1

R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 206.165.202.130*

R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 172.16.2.2

R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.130

R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 206.165.202.129

22. What does BGP use to exchange routing updates with neighbors?

TCP connections*

area numbers

group identification numbers

hellos

23. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)

access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 permit ip any any

access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21

access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit ip any any***

R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in

R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out*

R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

24. Refer to the exhibit.

A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new statement to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

Manually add the new deny statement with a sequence number of 5.*

Manually add the new deny statement with a sequence number of 15.

Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

Add a deny any any statement to access-list 1.

25. Refer to the exhibit.

What can be determined from this output?

The ACL is missing the deny ip any any ACE.

Because there are no matches for line 10, the ACL is not working.

The ACL is only monitoring traffic destined for 10.23.77.101 from three specific hosts.

The router has not had any Telnet packets from 10.35.80.22 that are destined for 10.23.77.101.*

26. What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?

named standard

named extended*

numbered standard

numbered extended

27. Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25*

permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 25

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 23

permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 23

28. Refer to the exhibit.

Considering how packets are processed on a router that is configured with ACLs, what is the correct order of the statements?

C-B-A-D

A-B-C-D

C-B-D-A*

B-A-D-C

D-A-C-B

29. Which two hypervisors are suitable to support virtual machines in a data center? (Choose two.)

Virtual PC

VMware Fusion

VMware ESX/ESXi*

Oracle VM VirtualBox

Microsoft Hyper-V 2012*

30. How can DHCP spoofing attacks be mitigated?

by disabling DTP negotiations on nontrunking ports

by implementing DHCP snooping on trusted ports*

by implementing port security

by the application of the ip verify source command to untrusted ports​

31. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

Configure SSH.*

Configure Telnet.

Configure 802.1x.

Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.

32. What action can a network administrator take to help mitigate the threat of VLAN attacks?

Disable VTP.

Configure all switch ports to be members of VLAN 1.

Disable automatic trunking negotiation.*

Enable PortFast on all switch ports.

33. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

VTP

LLDP

HSRP

RADIUS*

TACACS+*

34. Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

GET request

SET request

GET response

Trap*

35. Refer to the exhibit.

A SNMP manager is using the community string of snmpenable and is configured with the IP address 172.16.10.1. The SNMP manager is unable to read configuration variables on the R1 SNMP agent. What could be the problem?​

The SNMP agent is not configured for read-only access.

The community of snmpenable2 is incorrectly configured on the SNMP agent.

The ACL is not permitting access by the SNMP manager.*

The incorrect community string is configured on the SNMP manager.

36. Refer to the exhibit.

Which SNMP authentication password must be used by the member of the ADMIN group that is configured on router R1?

cisco54321

cisco98765

cisco123456*

cisco654321

37. A network administrator has noticed an unusual amount of traffic being received on a switch port that is connected to a college classroom computer. Which tool would the administrator use to make the suspicious traffic available for analysis at the college data center?

RSPAN*

TACACS+

802.1X

DHCP snooping

SNMP

38. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis?

802.1X

SNMP

SPAN*

syslog

39. Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion the delay between each packet varies and is causing broken conversations. What term describes the cause of this condition?

buffering

latency

queuing

jitter*

40. What mechanism compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then replaying them outbound in a steady stream?

digital signal processor

playout delay buffer*

voice codec

WFQ

41. Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?

CBWFQ

FIFO

LLQ*

FCFS

42. Which type of network traffic cannot be managed using congestion avoidance tools?

TCP

UDP*

IP

ICMP

43. Refer to the exhibit.

As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

traffic shaping*

weighted random early detection

classification and marking

traffic policing

44. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.

A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.*

A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.

A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.

45. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

CoS*

ToS

DSCP

IP precedence

46. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

data analytics

fog computing*

network connectivity

application enhancement platform

47. A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?

Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.*

Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

Interview departmental administrative assistants to determine if web pages are loading more quickly.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

48. In which stage of the troubleshooting process would ownership be researched and documented?

Gather symptoms.*

Implement corrective action.

Isolate the problem.

Update the user and document the problem.

49. Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?

a less-structured approach based on an educated guess*

an approach comparing working and nonworking components to spot significant differences

a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving up through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified

an approach that starts with the end-user applications and moves down through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem has been identified

50. A router has been configured to use simulated network traffic in order to monitor the network performance between the router and a distant network device. Which command would display the results of this analysis?

show ip route

show ip protocols

show ip sla statistics*

show monitor

51. Which type of tool would an administrator use to capture packets that are going to and from a particular device?

NMS tool

knowledge base

baselining tool

protocol analyzer*

52. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)

R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.*

R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is entered.

R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.

R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.

The syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10.*

53. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

The router has an incorrect gateway.

Host A has an overlapping network address.

Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.

Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.

NAT is required for the host A network.*

54. Match the operation to the appropriate QoS model.

55. Match the cloud model with the description.

CCNA 4 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 100% Option B

1. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*

when the network will span multiple buildings

when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN

2. What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)

DNS servers

satellite service*

web hosting service

telephone company*

Internet search engine service

3. Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found on a LAN? (Choose two.)

access layer switch

broadband modem*

core switch

CSU/DSU​*

distribution layer router

4. What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

It replaces SONET and SDH technologies.

It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.*

It provides Layer 3 support for long distance data communications.

It provides a 10 Gb/s multiplexed signal over analog copper telephone lines.

5. What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?

less efficient*

lacks SVC support

does not scale well to provide high speed WAN connections

requires multiple interfaces on the edge router to support multiple VCs

6. Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network?

cable

DSL

Frame Relay

MPLS*

VSAT

7. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

private infrastructure

public infrastructure*

dedicated

circuit-switched

cellular*

8. What device is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers?

CMTS

DSLAM*

CSU/DSU

access server

9. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

dial-up connection

leased line connection

site-to-site VPN over the Internet

remote access VPN over the Internet*

10. What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

2

12

24*

28

11. Refer to the exhibit.

What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router?

Ethernet

Frame Relay

HDLC*

PPP

12. Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection? (Choose two.)

identifying fault conditions for the PPP link

providing multilink capabilities over the PPP link

bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down*

enhancing security by providing callback over PPP

negotiating options for the IP protocol*

managing authentication of the peer routers of the PPP link

13. What PPP information will be displayed if a network engineer issues the show ppp multilink command on Cisco router?

the link LCP and NCP status

the queuing type on the link

the IP addresses of the link interfaces

the serial interfaces participating in the multilink*

14. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.

Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.

Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.*

15. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:

R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70

What is the effect of these commands?

The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*

The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

16. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

Power is always provided.

Less energy is consumed.

Server provisioning is faster.

Hardware does not have to be identical.*

17. Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?

cable*

DSL

WiMax

ADSL

18. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

PPPoE*

CHAP

ADSL

LTE

19. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller?

control plane*

data plane

security

application policies

20. What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub router R1 to look like if connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration?

192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted
C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1​
C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer2​

S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1​​

192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted
C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer

S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1
​ 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted
C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1​
C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer1*

21. What is a benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network design?

A DMVPN will use an encrypted session and does not require IPsec.

A DMVPN uses a Layer 3 protocol, NHRP, to dynamically establish tunnels.

A DMVPN will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one.*

A DMVPN uses mGRE to create multiple GRE interfaces that each support a single VPN tunnel.

22. Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling?

a mobile user who connects to a router at a central site

a branch office that connects securely to a central site

a mobile user who connects to a SOHO site

a central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption*

23. Refer to the exhibit.

All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

2

3

4*

5

24. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

They are configured in the interface configuration mode.

They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.*

They can be created with a number but not with a name.

They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

25. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

access list number between 1 and 99

access list number between 100 and 199*

default gateway address and wildcard mask

destination address and wildcard mask*

source address and wildcard mask*

source subnet mask and wildcard mask

destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

26. Refer to the exhibit.

A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

27. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

deny ip any any

deny ipv6 any any*

permit ipv6 any any

deny icmp any any

permit icmp any any nd-ns*

permit icmp any any nd-na*

28. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

29. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

permit ip any any

permit ip any host ip_address

permit icmp any any nd-na*

deny ip any any

30. What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

so that the switch stops forwarding traffic

so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address

so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts*

so that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

31. What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)

fog computing*

wearable technologies

data analytics*

robot guides

cyber and physical security*

smart bandages

32. What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table overflow attacks?

port security*

DHCP snooping

IP source guard

Dynamic ARP Inspection

33. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

VTP

LLDP

HSRP

RADIUS*

TACACS+*

34. Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling?

SNMP set messages

SNMP trap messages*

SNMP get messages

SNMP community strings

35. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

packet encryption

message integrity

community strings*

source validation

36. What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

bulk MIB objects retrieval

encryption*

authorization with community string priority

authentication*

ACL management filtering

37. Refer to the exhibit.

What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?

a manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut

a manager who is using an Inform Request MIB

a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5*

a manager who is using authPriv

38. Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

FIFO

CBWFQ*

WFQ

FCFS

39. Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?

CBWFQ

FIFO

LLQ*

FCFS

40. Refer to the exhibit.

As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

traffic shaping*

weighted random early detection

classification and marking

traffic policing

41. Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?

Type of Service field

Traffic Class field

Priority field*

Version field

42. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.

A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.*

A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.

A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.

43. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

data analytics

fog computing*

network connectivity

application enhancement platform

44. What is an example of cloud computing?

a continuous interaction between people, processes, data, and things

a service that offers on-demand access to shared resources*

a network infrastructure that spans a large geographic area

an architectural style of the World Wide Web

45. Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?

a host operating system

a server running VMware Fusion

a management console*

a dedicated VLAN

46. A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in order to solve a problem. However, the problem is not solved. Which step should the technician take next?

Gather symptoms.

Isolate the problem.

Restore the previous configuration.*

Implement the next possible corrective action.

47. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?

top-down

bottom-up

substitution

divide-and-conquer*

48. What is a primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature?

to detect potential network attacks

to provide network connectivity for customers

to adjust network device configurations to avoid congestion

to measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible*

49. Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?

level 0*

level 1

level 4

level 7

50. Which symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer?

A misconfigured firewall blocks traffic to a file server.

There are too many invalid frames transmitted in the network.

Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers.*

A web server cannot be reached by its domain name, but can be reached via its IP address.

51. Refer to the exhibit.

H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4 and H5?

Router R1 does not have a route to the destination network.

Switch S1 does not have an IP address configured.

The link between router R1 and switch S2 has failed.

Host H1 does not have a default gateway configured.*

Hosts H4 and H5 are members of a different VLAN than host H1.

52. Refer to the exhibit.

On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.

There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

This host does not have a default gateway configured.

53. Fill in the blanks. Use dotted decimal format.

The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is “0.0.1.255” .

54. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol. (Not all options are used.)

55. Match the term to the description. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2018