CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 3 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?

encapsulation

flow control*

access method

response timeout

 

2. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

broadcast*

multicast

unicast

allcast

 

3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

access control

decoding

encapsulation*

flow control

 

4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet*

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

 

5. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.

They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.*

They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.

They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.

 

6. Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?

The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions.*

The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer.

The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions.

The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the TCP/IP internet layer.

 

7. What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.

Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.*

Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.

Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.

 

8. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

ARP

DHCP*

DNS*

FTP*

NAT

PPP

 

9. What are proprietary protocols?

protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware

protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor

protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation*

a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

 

10. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor.

A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data.*

Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.

Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

only application and Internet layers

only Internet and network access layers

only application, Internet, and network access layers

application, transport, Internet, and network access layers*

only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

 

12. Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

application*

presentation*

session*

transport

data link

physical

network

 

13. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer*

transport layer

 

14. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

file

frame*

packet

segment

 

15. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

bits

frame

packet

segment*

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

A frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchA.

A packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.

A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.*

A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB.*

A frame with the destination MAC address of ServerB.

 

17. Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address*

source Ethernet address

 

18. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

 

19. Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer*

the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer

the physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer

the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router

 

20. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)

message encoding  ->  the process of converting information from one format into another acceptable for transmission

message encapsulation  -> the process of placing one message format inside another message format

message sizing  ->  the process of breaking up a long message into individual pieces before being sent over the network

 

21. Match the protocol function to the description while taking into consideration that a network client is visiting a web site. (Not all options are used.)

governing the way a web server and a web client interact -> application protocol
talking the segments from the transport protocol, encapsulating them into packets, and assigning them with appropriate addresses -> internet protocol
preparing packets to be transmitted over the network media -> network access protocol
– not scored –
managing the individual conversation between web servers and web clients -> transport protocol

 

22. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)

ISOC -> The organization promotes the open development, evolution, and use of the internet throughout the world
ISO -> This organization is the largest developer of international standars in the world for a wide variety of products and services. It is know for its Open System Interconection (OSI) reference model.
IANA -> This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What is the function of the kernel of an operating software?

It provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task.

The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer.

It is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device.

The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements.*

2. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

Telnet

Console

AUX

SSH*

 

3. Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure environment?

Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network.

Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.*

Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network.

Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.

 

4. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

end

exit*

Ctrl-Z

Ctrl-C

 

5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file contains an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

global configuration mode

setup mode

privileged EXEC mode

user EXEC mode*

 

6. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted

displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode*

allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key

determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command*

selecting the best command to accomplish a task

 

7. Which information does the show startup-config command display?

the IOS image copied into RAM

the bootstrap program in the ROM

the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM*

 

8. Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device?

a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set

a hostname must be configured before any other parameters

to identify the device during remote access (SSH or telnet)*

to allow local access to the device through the console port

 

9. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

Branch2!

RM-3-Switch-2A4*

Floor(15)

HO Floor 17

SwBranch799*

 

10. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.*

It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the MOTD on switch SW1. What is the purpose of this command?

 

to display a message when a user accesses the switch*

to configure switch SW1 so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet into SW1

to force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication

to configure switch SW1 so that the message will display when a user enters the enable command

 

12. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?

Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.*

Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.

Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.

Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.

 

13. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.*

It is stored in NVRAM.

It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

 

14. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

RAM provides nonvolatile storage.

The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.*

The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.*

RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.

RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

 

15. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

the AUX interface

the console port interface

the switch virtual interface*

the first Ethernet port interface

 

16. Which interface is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

FastEthernet 0/1

GigabitEthernet 0/1

VLAN 1*

VLAN 99

 

17. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

to enable the switch to be managed remotely*

to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

 

18. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

ping

ipconfig*

show interfaces

show ip interface brief

 

19. A technician is adding a new PC to a LAN. After unpacking the components and making all the connections, the technician starts the PC. After the OS loads, the technician opens a browser, and verifies that the PC can reach the Internet. Why was the PC able to connect to the network with no additional configuration?

The PC does not require any additional information to function on the network.

The PC came preconfigured with IP addressing information from the factory.

The PC was preconfigured to use DHCP.*

The PC used DNS to automatically receive IP addressing information from a server.

The PC virtual interface is compatible with any network.

 

20. What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?

if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire

if there is connectivity with the destination device*

the path that traffic will take to reach the destination

what type of device is at the destination

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is testing connectivity in a new network. Based on the test results shown in the exhibit, which device does the technician have connectivity with and which device does the technician not have connectivity with? (Choose two.)

connectivity: switch 2*

connectivity: PC-D

connectivity: PC-B

no connectivity: switch 1

no connectivity: switch 2

no connectivity: PC-C*

 

22. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

 

Two physical interfaces have been configured.

The switch can be remotely managed.*

One device is attached to a physical interface.*

Passwords have been configured on the switch.

Two devices are attached to the switch.

The default SVI has been configured.*

 

23. An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)

24. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network. What are three characteristics of a peer-to-peer network? (Choose three.)

better security

easy to create*

better device performance when acting as both client and server

lacks centralized administration*

less cost to implement*

scalable

 

2. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a router*

a firewall

a web server

a DSL modem

 

3. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)

the types of data that need to be prioritized

the cost of the end devices utilized in the network

the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal*

the number of intermediary devices installed in the network

the environment where the selected medium is to be installed*

 

4. Which two statements describe intermediary devices? (Choose two.)

Intermediary devices generate data content.

Intermediary devices alter data content.

Intermediary devices direct the path of the data.*

Intermediary devices connect individual hosts to the network.*

Intermediary devices initiate the encapsulation process.

 

5. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

They originate the data that flows through the network.*

They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.

They filter the flow of data to enhance security.

They are the interface between humans and the communication network.*

They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

 

6. Which area of the network would a college IT staff most likely have to redesign as a direct result of many students bringing their own tablets and smartphones to school to access school resources?

extranet

intranet

wired LAN

wireless LAN*

wireless WAN

 

7. What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?

an intranet

the Internet*

an extranet

a local area network

 

8. An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?

an intranet*

the Internet

an extranet

a local area network

 

9. Which two connection options provide an always-on, high-bandwidth Internet connection to computers in a home office? (Choose two.)

cellular

DSL*

satellite

cable*

dial-up telephone

 

10. Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.)

DSL

cellular*

satellite*

dialup

dedicated leased line

 

11. Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity?

convergence

congestion*

optimization

synchronization

 

12. What type of network traffic requires QoS?

email

on-line purchasing

video conferencing*

wiki

 

13. Which expression accurately defines the term bandwidth?

a method of limiting the impact of a hardware or software failure on the network

a measure of the data carrying capacity of the media*

a state where the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity

a set of techniques to manage the utilization of network resources

 

14. A network administrator is implementing a policy that requires strong, complex passwords. Which data protection goal does this policy support?

data integrity

data quality

data confidentiality*

data redundancy

 

15. Which statement describes a characteristic of cloud computing?

A business can connect directly to the Internet without the use of an ISP.

Applications can be accessed over the Internet by individual users or businesses using any device, anywhere in the world.*

Devices can connect to the Internet through existing electrical wiring.

Investment in new infrastructure is required in order to access the cloud.

 

16. What is the Internet?

It is a network based on Ethernet technology.

It provides network access for mobile devices.

It provides connections through interconnected global networks.*

It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.

 

17. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.*

Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

 

18. What security violation would cause the most amount of damage to the life of a home user?

denial of service to your email server

replication of worms and viruses in your computer

capturing of personal data that leads to identity theft*

spyware that leads to spam emails

 

19. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)

implementing a firewall*

installing a wireless network

installing antivirus software*

implementing an intrusion detection system

adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

 

20. Fill in the blank.

A converged network is capable of delivering voice, video, text, and graphics over the same communication channels.

 

21. Fill in the blank.

The acronym byod refers to the policy that allows employees to use their personal devices in the business office to access the network and other resources.

 

22. Match the description to the form of network communication. (Not all options are used.)

Web pages that groups of people can edit and view together -> wiki
Interactive websites where people created and share user-generated content with friends and family -> Social media
real-time communication of between two or more people -> instant messaging
an audio-based medium that allows people to deliver their recordings to a wide audience -> podcast

 

23. Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet connectivity type. (Not all options are used.)

satellite -> Not suited for heavily wooded areas
dialup telephone -> typically has very low bandwidth
DSL -> splits the access line into three signals
cable -> uses coaxial cable as a medium

 

24. Match the definition to the security goal. (Not all options are used.)

maintaining integrity -> the assurance that the information has not been altered during transmission
ensuring confidentiality -> only the intended recipients can access and read the data
ensuring availability -> the assurance of timely and reliable access to data

CCNA1 v6.0 Pretest Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

11110010

11011011

11110110

11100111*

11100101

11101110

 

2. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

85

90

BA*

A1

B3

1C

 

3. The failure rate in a certain brand of network interface card has been determined to be 15%. How many cards could be expected to fail in a company that has 80 of the cards installed?

8

10

12*

15

 

4. A local real estate company can have its 25 computer systems upgraded for $1000. If the company chooses only to upgrade 10 systems, how much will the upgrade cost if the same rate is used?

$100

$200

$400*

$500

$600

 

5. Which two devices provide permanent data storage? (Choose two.)

Blu-Ray disc*

hard drive*

keyboard

monitor

RAM

 

6. If a technician uses an average of 2 cans of compressed air per week for cleaning, how many cans should be ordered for 8 technicians over the next 10 weeks?

16

20

80

160*

200

 

7. What is a function of the BIOS?

enables a computer to connect to a network

provides temporary data storage for the CPU

performs a power-on self test of internal components*

provides graphic capabilities for games and applications

 

8. Which is a characteristic of the Internet?

It is not centrally governed.*

It uses only physical addresses.

It uses private IP addressing.

It is localized to specific geographic locations.

 

9. Which command can be used to test connectivity between two computers that are attached to a network?

ipconfig

ping*

winipcfg

ifconfig

nbtstst -s

 

10. A person-hour is the amount of work that the average worker can do in one hour. It is anticipated that a company-wide system upgrade will take approximately 60 person-hours to complete. How long will it take five technicians to perform the refresh?

5 hours

8 hours

10 hours

12 hours*

 

11. Considering the average capacity of storage device media, drag the storage media on the left to the capacity list on the right.

 

 

12. Refer to the exhibit. Match the port to the associated letter shown in the exhibit. (Not all options are used.)

 

13. Match the icon to its likely associated use. (Not all options are used.)

14. Match the form of network communication with its description. (Not all options are used.)

 

15. Match the application with the correct compressed file format. (Not all options are used.)

 

16. A user is having problems accessing the Internet. The command ping www.cisco.com fails. However, pinging the IP address of cisco.com with the command ping 198.133.219.25 is successful. What is the problem?

The web server is down.

The default gateway is incorrect.

There is a problem with DNS.*

The address of the ARP cache is incorrect.

 

17. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?

2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13

2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13

2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13

2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13*

 

18. What is the purpose of the routing process?

to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network

to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*

to convert a URL name into an IP address

to provide secure Internet file transfer

to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

 

19. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

switch

hub

router*

host

 

20. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

 

21. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

LAN

MAN

WAN*

WLAN

 

22. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

to determine the active TCP connections on a PC

to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server

to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*

to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

 

23. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

 

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*

It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

 

24. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

 

25. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

the TCP/IP stack on a network host*

connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices

connectivity between a PC and the default gateway

connectivity between two PCs on the same network

physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

 

26. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

 

27. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

frame

packet

protocol data unit*

segment

 

28. How does a networked server manage requests from multiple clients for different services?

The server sends all requests through a default gateway.

Each request is assigned source and destination port numbers.*

The server uses IP addresses to identify different services.

Each request is tracked through the physical address of the client.

 

29. Which protocol translates a website name such as www.cisco.com into a network address?

HTTP

FTP

DHCP

DNS*

 

30. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.*

The command syntax is wrong.

The subnet mask information is incorrect.

The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.

 

31. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?

TCP*

IP

HTTP

Ethernet

 

32. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

presentation layer

network layer

physical layer*

data link layer

 

33. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

 

34. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

FTP

HTTP

DHCP*

ICMP

SNMP

 

35. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.*

It will forward the frame to the next host.

It will remove the frame from the media.

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

 

36. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

 

37. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8*

64.100.0.0/14

127.16.0.0/12

172.16.0.0/12*

192.31.7.0/24

192.168.0.0/16*

 

38. What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?

ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network.

ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network.

ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network.

ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network.*

 

39. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices

to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally

to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

 

40. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

CCNA 1 Practice Final Exam v5.02 exam answers

1. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

regenerating data signals*

acting as a client or a server

providing a channel over which messages travel

applying security settings to control the flow of data*

notifying other devices when errors occur*

serving as the source or destination of the messages

2. For which three reasons was a packet-switched connectionless data communications technology used when developing the Internet? (Choose three.)

It can rapidly adapt to the loss of data transmission facilities.*

It efficiently utilizes the network infrastructure to transfer data.*

Data packets can travel multiple paths through the network simultaneously.*

It allows for billing of network use by the amount of time a connection is established.

It requires that a data circuit between the source and destination be established before data can be transferred.

3. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?

DSL

dialup

satellite

leased line*

cable modem

4. What is an ISP?

It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.*

It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

5. An administrator needs to upgrade the IOS in a router to a version that supports new features. Which factor should the administrator consider before performing the upgrade?

The old IOS must be removed first.

NVRAM must be erased before the new IOS can be installed.

The new IOS might require more RAM to function properly.*

The old IOS should be backed up to NVRAM so that it is not lost during a power failure.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is attempting to connect to a new router to perform the initial configuration. The engineer connects a rollover cable from the serial port of a PC to the Aux port on the router, then configures HyperTerminal as shown. The engineer cannot get a login prompt in HyperTerminal. What would fix the problem?

Connect to the Ethernet port on the PC.

Change connection settings to even parity.

Move the cable to the router console port.*

Use a crossover cable instead of a rollover cable.

7. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco router?

a console connection

an AUX connection

a Telnet connection

an SSH connection*

8. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to view the current configuration on this switch but receives the error message that is displayed. What does this error indicate?

The command does not exist.

One or more required keywords or arguments were omitted.

Not enough characters were entered for the interpreter to recognize the command.*

The administrator does not have the required level of access to use this command.

9. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

The banner message is too long.

The delimiting character appears in the banner message.*

The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.

Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console port.

10. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.*

This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

12. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

13. A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.

The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.

The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.*

The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

14. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

presentation layer

network layer

physical layer*

data link layer

15. Why are the paired wires twisted in a CAT5 cable?

to facilitate cable termination in the connector

to extend the signaling length

to improve the mechanical strength

to provide eletromagnetic noise cancellation*

16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

greater distances per cable run*

lower installation cost

limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI*

durable connections

greater bandwidth potential*

easily terminated

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which layer of the OSI model would format data in this way?

physical

network

data link*

transport

application

18. On a point-to-point network, which communication type is used when two devices can both transmit and receive but not at the same time?

controlled access

deterministic

full-duplex

half-duplex*

19. What three statements describe features or functions of media access control? (Choose three.)

Controlled media access involves collision handling.

It is responsible for detecting transmission errors in transmitted data.*

It uses contention-based access also known as deterministic access.

802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.

Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.*

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.*

20. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

to determine the physical address of the sending device

to verify the network layer protocol information

to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends

to check the frame for possible transmission errors*

to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

21. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?

Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address*

Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address

Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address

Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

22. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table*

forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway

utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address*

examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

23. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet switching*

microsegmentation

domain name resolution

path selection*

flow control

24. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

The IOS image is corrupt.

Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.*

The POST process has detected hardware failure.

25. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

Perform the POST routine.

Search for a backup IOS in ROM.

Load the bootstrap program from ROM.

Load the running-config file from RAM.

Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.*

26. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

to identify missing segments at the destination*

to reassemble the segments at the remote location*

to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination

to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time

to determine if the packet changed during transit

27. A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address 192.168.25.10. The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is 192.168.25.10. The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?

This is a loopback address.

This is a link-local address.

This is a private IP address.*

There is an IP address conflict.

28. Which service will translate private internal IP addresses into Internet routable public IP addresses?

ARP

DHCP

DNS

NAT*

29. Which IPv6 address notation is valid?

2001:0DB8::ABCD::1234

ABCD:160D::4GAB:FFAB

2001:DB8:0:1111::200*

2001::ABCD::

30. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface??

FEC0::/10?

FDEE::/7?

FEBF::/10*

FF00::/8?

31. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

broadcast address

global routing prefix*

subnet mask

subnet ID*

interface ID*

32. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

33. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

It sends four Echo Request messages.

It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.

It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.

It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.*

34. Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network in order to minimize address waste?

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252*

255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252

35. A network administrator has been issued a network address of 192.31.7.64/26. How many subnets of equal size could be created from the assigned /26 network by using a /28 prefix?

3

4*

6

8

14

16

36. A small satellite office has been given the overall network number of 192.168.99.0/24 and the network technician can subdivide the network addresses as needed. The office needs network access for both wired and wireless devices. However, because of the security consideration, these two networks should be separate. The wired network will have 20 devices. The wireless network has a potential connection of 45 devices. Which addressing scheme would be most efficient for these two networks?

192.168.99.0/26
192.168.99.64/27*

192.168.99.0/27
192.168.99.32/26

192.168.99.0/27
192.168.99.32/28

192.168.99.0/28
192.168.99.16/28

192.168.99.0/28
192.168.99.64/26

37. The administrator of a branch office receives an IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:3000::/52 from the corporate network manager. How many subnets can the administrator create?

1024

2048

4096*

8192

65536

38. A user is attempting to do an http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

DNS server*

WINS server

HTTP server

default gateway*

Netbios

39. Which devices should be secured to mitigate against MAC address spoofing attacks?

Layer 7 devices

Layer 4 devices

Layer 2 devices*

Layer 3 devices

40. Which router configuration mode would an administrator use to configure the router for SSH or Telnet login access?

line*

router

global

interface

privileged EXEC

41. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

Connectivity to the remote device was successful.

A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.*

A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.

The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.

42. Which is a function of the show ip route command when used as a tool for troubleshooting network connectivity?

indicates the point of failure in the connection

shows the IP address of the next hop router for each route*

lists the IP addresses of all hops the traffic will pass through to reach the destination network

shows the incoming and outgoing interfaces the traffic will go through in order to reach the destination network

43. A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the network after startup and that a popup window says “This connection has limited or no connectivity.” The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?

The workstation NIC has malfunctioned.

The subnet mask was configured incorrectly.

The DNS server IP address needs to be configured.

The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.*

44. A particular email site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

45. To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged?

The command should have been copy startup-config tftp.

The configuration should have been copied to the running configuration instead.*

The configuration changes were copied into RAM and require a reboot to take effect.

A TFTP server can only be used to restore the Cisco IOS, not the router configuration.

46. Refer to the graphic. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

It identifies the wireless LAN.

It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.

It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.

It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.*

It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

47. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

EAP

PSK

WEP*

WPA

48. Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings could be changed to improve security on the wireless network? (Choose two.)

network mode

SSID*

radio band

wide channel

standard channel

SSID broadcast*

49. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. Use lower case.

Which interface configuration mode command puts a Layer 3 switch interface into Layer 3 mode? __no switchport__

50. Fill in the blank.

A nibble consists of __4__ bits.

51. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

52. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

53. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

54. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the secret keyword that is displayed on the web page?

router

switch

frame

packet*

cisco

55. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is __winner__ .?

56. A small business user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

57. What information does the loopback test provide?

The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*

The device has end-to-end connectivity.

DHCP is working correctly.

The Ethernet cable is working correctly.

The device has the correct IP address on the network.

58. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

Request for Comments*

IRTF research papers

protocol models

IEEE standards

59. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*

Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.

Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*

Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.

Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab​les and laser technology for multimode cables.

60. What is the function of CSMA/CA in a WLAN?

It provides the mechanism for media access.*

It describes the smallest building block of the WLAN.

It assures that clients are connected to the correct WLAN.

It allows a host to move between cells without loss of signal.

61. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.*

It will forward the frame to the next host.

It will remove the frame from the media.

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

62. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

It initiates an ARP request.

It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

63. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

adjacency tables*

MAC-address tables

routing tables

ARP tables

forwarding information base (FIB)*

64. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC

source and destination application protocol

source and destination port number

source and destination IP address*

65. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.*

The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.

The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.*

66. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.

The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.*

67. What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?

sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination

determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer

requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source

synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer*

68. Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network, including the links between routers, in order to minimize address waste?

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252*

255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.224

255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252

69. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26*

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.32/28

192.168.1.64/29

70. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to let the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST

DHCPACK*

DHCPNACK

71. Which two types of applications rely on their traffic having priority over other traffic types through the network? (Choose two.)

email

file transfer

instant messaging

video*

voice*

72. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

exec-timeout 30

service password-encryption

banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

73. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60

74. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 ITN Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

Last updated by Admin at May.

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

  • wiki
  • e-mail
  • weblog
  • instant messaging*

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

  • DSL*
  • dial-up
  • satellite
  • cell modem
  • cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

  • LAN
  • MAN
  • WAN*
  • WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS? 

  • flash memory*
  • NVRAM?
  • RAM
  • ROM
  • a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

  • a console connection
  • an AUX connection
  • a Telnet connection
  • an SSH connection*

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

  • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
  • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
  • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*
  • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

  • to restart the ping process
  • to interrupt the ping process*
  • to exit to a different configuration mode
  • to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

  • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
  • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
  • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
  • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?

  • My Switch(config)#?
  • Switch(config)#?*
  • MySwitch(config)#?
  • My(config)#?
  • Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

  • letmein
  • secretin
  • lineconin
  • linevtyin*

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
  • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

  • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
  • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
  • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.*
  • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 0.0.0.1
  • 127.0.0.1*
  • 192.168.1.1
  • 255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

  • ARP
  • DHCP*
  • DNS*
  • FTP*
  • NAT
  • PPP

16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

  • ARP
  • BOOTP
  • ICMP*
  • IP*
  • PPP

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

  • Request for Comments*
  • IRTF research papers
  • protocol models
  • IEEE standards

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

  • IP address
  • default gateway address
  • MAC address*
  • logical address

19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

  • ARP, multicast
  • DNS, unicast
  • DNS, broadcast
  • ARP, broadcast*
  • PING, multicast
  • PING, broadcast

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

  • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
  • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
  • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
  • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*
  • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

  • It accepts frames from the physical media.
  • It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
  • It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
  • It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.*

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

  • requiring proper grounding connections
  • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*
  • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
  • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
  • avoiding sharp bends during installation

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

  • Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*
  • Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
  • Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*
  • Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
  • Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

  • logical address
  • physical address
  • data
  • error detection*

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

  • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
  • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
  • crossover Ethernet cable connection*
  • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
  • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

  • just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*
  • just the PC0 MAC address
  • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
  • just the PC1 MAC address
  • just the PC2 MAC address?

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

  • A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
  • An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.*
  • A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
  • A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

  • to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
  • to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*
  • to convert a URL name into an IP address
  • to provide secure Internet file transfer
  • to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

  • ARP
  • DNS
  • NAT*
  • SMB
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*
  • It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
  • It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

  • packet switching*
  • microsegmentation
  • domain name resolution
  • path selection*
  • flow control

32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

  • ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
  • FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
  • RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.*
  • NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
  • ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.*

33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

  • NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
  • NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode*
  • setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
  • TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
  • flash, ROM, setup mode

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

  • 10.172.168.1*
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.20.4.4*
  • 192.168.5.254*
  • 224.6.6.6

36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

  • 4
  • 8
  • 16*
  • 32

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

  • to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
  • to enable the router as an IPv6 router*
  • to permit only unicast packets on the router
  • to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?

  • FEC0::/10?
  • FDFF::/7?
  • FEBF::/10?
  • FF00::/8*

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

  • to inform routers about network topology changes
  • to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
  • to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*
  • to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

  • The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
  • The default gateway address in incorrect.*
  • The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
  • The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

  • 192.168.1.64/26*
  • 192.168.1.32/27
  • 192.168.1.32/28
  • 192.168.1.64/29

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

  • random static addresses to improve security
  • addresses from different subnets for redundancy
  • predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*
  • dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

  • Site 1
  • Site 2*
  • Site 3
  • Site 4

44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

  • /62
  • /64*
  • /66
  • /68*
  • /70

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

  • DHCPDISCOVER*
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPREQUEST*
  • DHCPACK
  • DHCPNACK

46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

  • to require users to prove who they are
  • to determine which resources a user can access
  • to keep track of the actions of a user*
  • to provide challenge and response questions

47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

  • exec-timeout 30
  • service password-encryption
  • banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
  • login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*

48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

  • ipconfig /all
  • arp -a
  • ipconfig /displaydns*
  • nslookup

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

  • 192.168.9.254
  • 192.168.10.1
  • 192.168.10.2
  • 192.168.11.252*
  • 192.168.11.254

50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

  • broadcast SSID*
  • MAC filtering enabled
  • WEP encryption enabled
  • PSK authentication required
  • default administrator password*

52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP       is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

  • media
  • wireless NIC*
  • custom adapter
  • crossover cable
  • wireless bridge
  • wireless client software*

55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is            /60       .

56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

  • Stage 1 – perform the post
  • Stage 2 – load the bootstrap program
  • Stage 3 – Locate and load the Cisco IOS
  • Stage 4 – locate and load the configuration file

 

57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

  • when a cellular telephone provides the service
  • when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
  • when a satellite dish is used
  • when a regular telephone line is used*

59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

  • audio conference, database, HTTP*
  • database, HTTP, audio conference
  • audio conference, HTTP, database
  • database, audio conference, HTTP

60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

  • RAM*
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • disk drive

61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

  • a console connection
  • an AUX connection
  • a Telnet connection
  • an SSH connection*

62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

  • Ctrl-Shift-X
  • Ctrl-Shift-6*
  • Ctrl-Z
  • Ctrl-C

63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

  • HR Switch(config)#?
  • Switch(config)#?*
  • HRSwitch(config)#?
  • HR(config)#?
  • Switch#

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
  • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

  • FastEthernet0/1
  • VLAN 1*
  • vty 0
  • console 0

66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

  • the TCP/IP stack on a network host*
  • connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
  • connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
  • connectivity between two PCs on the same network
  • physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

  • switch
  • hub
  • router*
  • host

69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

  • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
  • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
  • the type of traffic that is crossing the network*
  • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
  • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
  • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

  • It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*
  • Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
  • It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
  • It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
  • It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling*

71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

  • It is straightforward to troubleshoot.*
  • End devices are connected together by a bus.
  • It is easy to add and remove end devices.*
  • All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
  • Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

  • to determine the physical address of the sending device
  • to verify the network layer protocol information
  • to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
  • to check the frame for possible transmission errors*
  • to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

  • It initiates an ARP request.
  • It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
  • It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
  • It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

  • cut-through
  • store-and-forward
  • fragment-free
  • fast-forward*

75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

  • the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network*
  • the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
  • the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
  • the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

  • stores routing tables
  • allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
  • maintains instructions for POST diagnostics*
  • holds ARP cache
  • stores bootstrap program*

77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

  • A console port is used for remote management of the router.
  • A console port is not used for packet forwarding.*
  • Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
  • Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

  • 192.0.2.199
  • 198.51.100.201
  • 203.0.113.211*
  • 209.165.201.223

80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

  • 10.20.30.1*
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.30.5.3*
  • 192.168.5.5*
  • 224.6.6.6

81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

  • private addresses
  • public addresses*
  • multicast addresses
  • experimental addresses

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

  • 11
  • 12
  • 13*
  • 14

83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

  • 192.168.1.16/28
  • 192.168.1.64/27*
  • 192.168.1.128/27
  • 192.168.1.96/28*
  • 192.168.1.192/28

84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

  • /23
  • /24
  • /25*
  • /26

85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

  • Transmission Control Protocol
  • Real-Time Transport Protocol*
  • Secure File Transfer Protocol
  • Video over Internet Protocol

86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

  • to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
  • to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
  • to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*
  • to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

  • The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
  • The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.*
  • An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
  • An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

89. Fill in the blank.

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as       full-duplex         .

90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals*
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data*
  • notifying other devices when errors occur*
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

  • area A
  • area B
  • area C*
  • area D

93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

  • to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
  • to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
  • to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
  • to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*

94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

  • audio conference, financial transactions, web page*
  • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
  • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
  • financial transactions, audio conference, web page

95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

  • RAM*
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • disk drive

96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

  • The configuration will be copied to flash.
  • The configuration will load when the router is restarted.*
  • The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
  • The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

97. What information does the loopback test provide?

  • The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*
  • The device has end-to-end connectivity.
  • DHCP is working correctly.
  • The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
  • The device has the correct IP address on the network.

98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

  • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
  • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
  • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*
  • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

  • CSMA/CD
  • priority ordering
  • CSMA/CA*
  • token passing

100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

  • The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
  • The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
  • The switch drops the frame.*
  • The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 255.255.255.255
  • FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

  • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
  • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection*
  • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
  • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

  • cut-through switching
  • store-and-forward switching*
  • fragment-free switching
  • fast-forward switching

104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

  • adjacency tables
  • MAC-address tables
  • routing tables*
  • ARP tables*
  • forwarding information base (FIB)

105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

  • It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
  • It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward*
  • the destination host.*
  • It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
  • It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

  • ARP
  • DNS
  • NAT*
  • SMB
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

  • The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.
  • The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.
  • The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.*
  • The gateway of last resort was not configured.

108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

  • TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*
  • TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
  • UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
  • TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*
  • TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?

  • the destination IP address
  • the destination port number*
  • the source IP address
  • the source port number

111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

  • Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.*
  • A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
  • A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
  • Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

  • MAC address
  • IP address*
  • kernel
  • shell
  • subnet mask*

113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

  • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
  • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*
  • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*
  • Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*
  • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
  • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

  • It eliminates most address configuration errors.*
  • It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
  • It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
  • It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
  • It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

  • 2001:DB8:BC15::0
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

  • compression*
  • addressing
  • encryption*
  • session control
  • authentication

117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

  • to require users to prove who they are*
  • to determine which resources a user can access
  • to keep track of the actions of a user
  • to provide challenge and response questions

118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA*

119. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a         Multicast                    message.

120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

121. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is .​ ”   winner   ”

122. A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?

  • This entry refers to the PC itself.
  • This entry maps to the default gateway.
  • This is a static map entry.*
  • This is a dynamic map entry.

123. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

  • Packet Length
  • Destination Address*
  • Flag
  • Time-to-Live

124. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?

  • 2001:db8:abc:1::1
  • 2001:db8:abc:5::1  *
  • 2001:db8:abc:5::2
  • 2001:db8:abc:10::15

Updated May 25, 2015 (62 new question)

1. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page*

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions

financial transactions, audio conference, web page

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin*

lineconin

linevtyin

3. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

error correction through a collision detection method

session control using port numbers

data link layer addressing*

placement and removal of frames from the media

detection of errors through CRC calculations*

delimiting groups of bits into frames*

conversion of bits into data signals

4. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?

Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.

Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.

CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.*

Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).

5. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?

to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)

to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses*

to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making

to update the forwarding information base (FIB)

6. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?

It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.

In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.

When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.

Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one host to another.*

7. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?

Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.

ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can be used on the Internet.*

ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that can be used on the Internet.

Both users must be on the same network.

8. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local*

unique local

site local

global unicast

9. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

to ensure the fastest possible download speed

because HTTP is a best-effort protocol

because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

because HTTP requires reliable delivery*

10. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

10111010

11010101

11001010*

11011010

11. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*

2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

2001:DB8::AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​

11

12

13*

14

13. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

TTL field

CRC field

Hop Limit field*

Time Exceeded field

14. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*

Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

15. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

port filtering

stateful packet inspection*

URL filtering

application filtering

16. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to the remote host?

trace 10.1.1.5

traceroute 10.1.1.5

tracert 10.1.1.5*

ping 10.1.1.5

17. Fill in the blank.

To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be      grounded        correctly

18. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the type of traffic that is crossing the network*

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

19. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?

The cable insulation could be flammable.*

Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.

Network cables could be exposed to water.

The network cable could explode.

20. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?

a multimeter

an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer

a cable tester*

an ohmmeter

21. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?

capacitance

wire map*

inductance

flexibility

22. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*

just the PC0 MAC address

PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

just the PC1 MAC address

just the PC2 MAC address​

23. Which function is provided by TCP?

data encapsulation

detection of missing packets*

communication session control

path determination for data packets

24. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?

an ARP table

a routing table*

the destination PC physical address

a switching table

25. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?

an inband router interface

a console port

a serial WAN interface

an AUX port*

26. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

user executive mode

global configuration mode

any line configuration mode*

privileged EXEC mode

27. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*

28. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

2

21

250

306*

2921

29. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?

IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.

A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.*

A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.

Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

subnet mask

DNS address

host IP address

default gateway address*

31. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

172.16.16.255

172.16.20.255

172.16.19.255*

172.16.23.255

172.16.255.255

32. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/29********

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28

33. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?

2

3

4*

5

6

34. A  logical    topology influences the type of network framing and media access control that will be used.

35. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a password.

Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will require authentication.*

Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.

Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.

36. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?

It will remove encryption from all passwords.

It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.​

It will not reverse any encryption.*

It will reverse only the enable password encryption.

37. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

38. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

39. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

store-and-forward switching

fast-forward switching*

CRC switching

fragment-free switching*

QOS switching

40. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)

Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.

A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to it.*

An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.

An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.

Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.*

41. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

to identify the broadcast address of the destination network

to identify the host address of the destination host

to identify faulty frames

to identify the network address of the destination network*

42. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

234.17.10.9

234.16.12.10

236.17.12.6

236.17.12.10*

43. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

ipconfig /all

arp -a

ipconfig /displaydns*

nslookup

44. Fill in the blank.

Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide the flexibility to add new modules have a   Modular    configuration.

45.


Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?

11

12

13*

14

46. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the networK.*

A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREOUEST message.

The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and sub net masK to be assigned, the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default gateway.

If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a unicast DHCPREOUEST message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP information.

47. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

EAP
PSK
WEP*
WPA

48. A network administrator notices that the throughput on the network appears lower than expected when compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which three factors can
explain this difference? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic*
the type of data encapsulation in use
the type of traffic*
the number and type of network devices that the data is crossing*
the bandwidth of the connection to the ISP
the reliability of the network backbone

49. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER*
DHCPPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK

50. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses console line to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin*

linevtyin

51. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation*
cladding
immunity to electrical hazards
woven copper braid or metallic foil

52. How many bits would need to be borrowed if a network admin were given the IP addressing scheme of 172.16.0.0/16 and needed no more than 16 subnet with equal number of hosts?

10
12
2
4*
8

53. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

54.

It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is: The PC2 will be able to ping 192.168.1.1*

55. Which statement best describes the operation of the File Transfer Protocol?

An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.

An FTP server uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

 56. A client is establishing a TCP session with a server. How is the acknowledgment number in the response segment to the client determined?

The acknowledgment number field is modified by adding 1 to the randomly chosen initial sequence number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an acknowledgment packet and synchronization packet back to the client.
The acknowledgment number field uses a random source port number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an acknowledgment packet back to the client.

57. Why does layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP and subnet Mask?

to identify host address and destination host;
to identify network address of destination host;
to identify faulty frames;
to identify broadcast address of destination network;

58. There was also a question about if you activated service password encryption in the past and you prompt “no service password encryption” what password are modified ?

no password at all;
password of the lines are in clear;
login password;
?

59. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

message encapsulation
flow control
message encoding
access method

60. What is the primary reason to subnet IPv6 prefixes?
to conserve IPv6 addresses
to avoid wasting IPv6 addresses
to conserve IPv6 prefixes
to create a hierarchical Layer 3 network design

61. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
multicast
global unicast
link-local
loopback

62. Which statement describes data throughput?
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media under perfect conditions.
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.
It indicates the capacity of a particular medium to carry data.
It is the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP.

CCNA Wireless Chapter 18 and 19 Exam Answers

What is a WCS
Wireless control system

What is a WCS used for
To configure and monitor one or more controllers and their associated access points

The WCS has the same (5 things) as a WLC
1) Config
2) Perf. monitoring
3) Security
4) Fault management
5) Acc. options

WCS can provide a __________ view of multiple controllers and managed access points
Graphical

What protocol does WCS manage devices with?
SNMPv1-3

What operating systems can WCS run on?
Windows and Linux

What are the 3 versions of WCS?
1) Cisco WCS base
2) Cisco WCS location
3) Cisco WCS plus

What are some functions the Cisco WCS base fulfills?
Rogue AP detection
Ad-hoc detection
Containment functions for rogue devices
Map-based organization of AP RF coverage areas

The Cisco WCS location appliance performs computation based on _______ information from _______ WLC’s
RSSI info, from WLC’s

The WCS location compares what two things to map out a topology?
1) Real-time client RSSI
2) RF building characteristics

WCS + location appliance can display historical location data for up to ____________ clients
2500

The only actual difference between the WCS location and the WCS plus is…
High availability

What Windows OS is compatible with WCS?
Server 2003 SP2 32bit

What Linux server OS is compatible with WCS?
RHEL server 5.x 32bit

Are any 64 bit Linux or Windows OS’s compatible with WCS?
No

The network summary page:
Shows the number of controllers, number of AP’s which controllers handle, total clients on those AP’s, out of service radios etc.

The controller summary page:
Shows specific information on a certain controller

The client page:
Shows information on clients connected to AP’s

The maps page:
Displays a topology of the network with colour codes for RSSI

RF fingerprinting is…
The calculation of the location of tracked devices

How does RF fingerprinting work?
Resolves location coordinates by determining how RF signals are received at every grid point within a building

What predicts the RF signals?
The WCS

The location appliance is Linux and Java based/

The interface for the location appliance is defined in SOAP/XML

What is SOAP?
Simple object access protocol

SNMP operates between location appliances and the network

The 4 main applications for the location appliance are:
1) The location appliance can track 1500 mobile devices for 30 days
2) Work-flow automation and people tracking
3) WLAN security and NW control
4) RF capacity management/visibility

What two things are important to know when upgrading a WLC?
1) Software version
2) Hardware platform

Where would you find the software version in the GUI?
SUMMARY—> MONITOR menu

Where would you find the software version in the CLI?
show sysinfo

To find hardware platform on the GUI:
INVENTORY —-> CONTROLLER menu

To find hardware platform on CLI:
show inventory

What are 3 ways to upgrade a WLC?
1) web interface
2) CLI
3) WCS

What protocols are required when accessing the web interface?
https, http, IP

What two files do all upgrade methods require?
1) Image archive
2) Boot loader

What series of WLC does not need both file types?
The 2100 series WLC

What does the image archive contain?
1) RTO – real time OS
2) Shell scripts/java apps to run GUI/CLI
3) AP firmware code

What is the naming format for the image archive?
AIR-WLCxxxx[version].aes

What does the boot loader contain?
boot strap coding

What is the naming format for the boot loader?
AIR-WLCxxxx-ER.aes

On versions 4.1 or earlier, what was not required because it was included in the image archive?
The boot loader

Can the 2100 series WLC have its bootloader updated?
No

Both the 2 files for upgrading are encrypted and compressed with
AES

A ________ server is used to put the software onto the controller
TFTP

The TFTP server must be able to handle files larger than _____
32mb

To upgrade with the web interface what is the chain of clicks
commands > download file to controller window

The 5 parameters to enter when upgrading the software are:
1) TFTP server IP
2) File path
3) Maximum retries
4) Timeout
5) File name

What chain of commands is required to upgrade via the controller?
1) transfer download datatype code
2) transfer download mode tftp
3) transfer download serverip
4) transfer download path
5) transfer download filename
6) transfer download start
7) reset system

When the WLC is upgraded, the software on _____________ ______ is also upgraded
associated AP’s

How many AP’s can be upgraded at a time from the controller?
10

Configuration files from upgrade are stored in _________ and are executed when the controller ________
NVRAM, reboots

Configuration files on a WLC are in ____ format
XML

XML files have a ______________________ attached to them
file integrity check

What happens if the integrity of the XML config file has been compromised?
it is not loaded

What performs this integrity or CRC check?
The controller

What happens to config files being uploaded to TFTP servers on software versions 5.2 and higher?
They are converted from XML files to plaintext

The two steps to uploading config files are:
1) Set upload parameters
2) Initiate the upload

What is the CLI process for this
1) Transfer upload mode tftp
2) Transfer upload datatype config
3) Transfer upload serverip
4) Transfer upload filename

Encrypting config files prior to transmission:
1) Transfer encrypt enable
2) Transfer encrypt set-key
3) Transfer upload

Are incremental config downloads supported?
no

To download config files what chain of commands is used?
1) Transfer download mode {tftp | ftp}
2) Transfer download datatype config
3) Transfer download serverip
4) Transfer download path
5) Transfer download filename

If encryption was enabled during upload what chain of commands is necessary?
1) Transfer encrypt enable
2) Transfer encrypt secret key
3) Transfer download start
4) Reset system

CCNA Wireless Chapter 17 Exam Answers

The 4 main threats to wireless NW’s are:
1) Ad-hoc NW formation
2) Rogue AP’s
3) Client missassociations
4) Directed wireless network attacks

What exactly is client missassociation?
An SSID profile is saved and active scanning is in operation, resulting in a client connecting to a network without knowing

What are 4 examples of directed wireless network attacks?
1) DoS
2) Recon probes
3) Authent. penetration
4) MITM attacks

How are directed wireless network attacks most often mitigated?
By authenticating and encrypting management frames.

What is this process of mitigation called exactly?
MFP: management frame protection

Management frames are usually sent unauthenticated and unencrypted

What does MFP do to management frames?
It digitally signs them

The two MFP modes are:
1) Infrastructure
2) Client

In infrastructure MFP,
A hash is generated for every management frame and placed before the FCS

Client MFP is only available with…
CCX 5+ “Cisco compatible extensions”

What does Client MFP/CCX do to management frames
It uses 802.11i to encrypt mgmt frames between the client and the AP

What does Client MFP/CCX defend most effectively against?
MITM and DoS attacks

In Client MFP/CCX, a key is generated for each AP

Why can’t mobile devices associate with MFP LAN’s?
They don’t have the processing power required for the extra encryption/authentication techniques

2 older security methods are:
1) SSID —> wrong SSID? no association
2) MAC authentication

What is open authentication?
It means no authentication key is required

What is the 4 step process to open authentication?
1) Probe
2) Probe response
3) Auth
4) Auth response

In WEP authentication, a ____ key is used to encrypt traffic
WEP key

In WEP, the header is not encrypted is not encrypted, but the the data is is

What encryption type does WEP use?
RC4

What are the 3 different sizes for WEP keys?
40 bits
104 bits
128 bits

In WEP, every key is combined with an….
Initialization vector

What is the basic process of WEP association?
1) Auth request
2) Challenge text packet
3) Challenge text encrypted by supplicant
4) If AP able to decrypt properly supplicant has the right key

EAP is defined under which two RFC’s?
2284, and 3748

EAP usually works alongside..
802.1x or RADIUS

The 4 EAP message types are
1) Request — to supplicant
2) Response — from supplicant
3) Success
4) Failure

What is Cisco LEAP?
A proprietary username/PW based auth. system between a client and a RADIUS server

What is Cisco LEAP’s weakness?
Susceptible to eavesdropping

EAP-TLS is defined under…
RFC 2716

EAP-TLS uses… _________ for authentication
Digital certificates

EAP-TLS uses…__________ to secure communications between client and RADIUS server
PKI

In EAP-TLS, the ________ and __________ authenticate to eachother
client and server

What is TLS based on?
SSL 3.0

What did EAP-TTLS add to EAP-TLS?
Tunneling

PEAP is very similar to..
EAP-TLS

What are the 3 authentication options for PEAP?
1) EAP-MSCHAP V.2
2) EAP-GTC
3) EAP-OTP

What is fast-reconnect?
Roaming b/t AP’s made seamless b/c TLS session ID’s are cached by WLC

The 3 roles of the 802.1x framework are…
1) Supplicant
2) Authenticator
3) Authentication server

It can be said that the authenticator controls __________ access to the network
Physical

If a Cisco ACS is being used as the Authentication server, more _____________ methods of authentication are available
Diverse

802.1x: After the client sends a probe request to the AP, the AP will respond with a…
AP probe response which contains sec params.

What happens after the AP sends its probe response?
The client is associated but traffic is blocked until 802.1x auth is complete

The 802.1x authentication challenge is encrypted by
EAP

How does the client response to this challenge?
With a credential response

What does authenticator do with the credential response?
Converts it to a RADIUS access request and sends it to the AS

What does the AS do upon receiving the RADIUS access request?
It responds with a challenge that specifies what credentials are required of the supplicant

What happens if the client responds with the correct credentials?
The AS transmits a success message and encryption key

WPA2 is aka
802.11i

What is a PMK?
Pairwise master key,
It is created on a RADIUS server when a client authenticates

Where is the PMK sent?
From the AS to the authenticator

What is PMK used for?
To encrypt the exchange of the temporal session key

What is the PMK derived from that results in the authenticator and supplicant having the same one?
It is derived from client information

PMK’s are used to make PTK’s and GTK’s.

PTK’s and GTK’s are made in a
4 way handshake process

WPA2-PSK is aka
personal mode

WPA2-PSK is encrypted with…
A 256 bit PMK

CCNA Wireless Chapter 15 and 16 Exam Answers

The Cisco mobility express solution can be… (2 things)
1) Standalone
2) Controller based

The Cisco mobility express solution is part of the…
SBCS: Cisco smart business communication system

The SBCS contains what 4 things
1) Cisco UC (unified communications) 500 series
2) Cisco unified IP phones
3) Cisco monitor director
4) Cisco mobility solution

How many clients can the Cisco UC 500 support?
48

The Cisco mobility solution consists of what 2 things
1) 526 Wi. Express controller
2) 521 Wi. Express AP

What are the 526 and 521 managed by
The Cisco config assistant

How many controllers and how many AP’s can be used in the cisco mobility solution?
2 controllers, 6 AP’s each = 12

The 521 AP has ________ antennas
internal

Can the 521 AP associate with any other controllers?
no.

Does the cisco mobility express solution support enterprise level LWAPP?
No, it is a reduced feature version

When doing the CLI setup, the normal selection for the 526 is…
Run primary image

Connection to the controller GUI is made via what protocol
HTTPS

When using the CCA, you must create a…
Community (group name for network)

What version of CCA is required to migrate standalone 521 AP’s to LW AP’s?
1.5 or later

The CCA discovers WLC’s via what two things
1) IP discovery
2) CDP

What is the Windows WiLAN config tool called?
WZC: Windows wireless zero configuration utility

What happens if profiles have already been configured on the WZC?
It tries to connect to those networks automatically

WZC clients use _________ scanning
Active

Upon boot, WZC reports any networks being ________
Broadcast

What is active null scanning?
Probe requests that are sent with blank SSID fields

What happens if the WZC cannot establish any connections to infrastructure networks?
It tries ad-hoc networks

What happens if no ad-hoc networks are available for the WZC client to connect to?
It becomes an ad-hoc node and sends out beacons

WLAN profile on a MAC are handled by
AIRPORT/AIRPORT EXTREME

What is the chain of clicks to configure a profile on AIRPORT
Open apple > System prefs > NW > Airport

In Linux that command line tool for joining WiLAN’s is called
iwconfig

The graphical version of Linux’s WiLAN config utility is called
NetworkManager

What is CAM?
Constant awake mode, prevents NIC’s from going into any kind of power saving mode

What is the ADU?
The aironet desktop utility, used for configuration of WiLAN profiles

What is the ACAU?
Aironet client admin. utlity – for pushing out ADU to multiple clients

What is the SSU?
Cisco site survey tool, a minimal site survey program

What is the ASTU?
Aironet system tray utility

What 3 advantages does ADU have over WZC?
1) Channel determination
2) Auth. / sec. config determination
3) RSSI/SNR determination

3 main profiles in ADU are
1) Unsecure
2) 802.1x
3) WPA/WPA2/CCKM

How long are 802.1x WEP keys?
40-104 bits

Imported ADU profile have what extension?
.prf

The 4 connection quality colours in the SSU are..
Green, yellow, orange, red

What is connection quality quantified by by default?
dBm

What is the SSC?
Cisco secure services client, provides L2 802.1x user/device authentication

How are SSCAU profiles saved?
As XML files

CCNA Wireless Chapter 12, 13 and 14 Exam Answers

Mobility is not synonymous with hot spot connectivity , rather it means a client can move between APs while keeping its IP address

The two types of client mobility are…
1) L2 mobility – client roams AP’s in same subnet
2) L3 mobility – client roams to AP in different subnet

What is a mobility group?
A group of WLC’s which share information with eachother

What is the maximum amount of WLC’s allowed in a mobility group?
24

What are the four requirements when creating mobility groups?
1) IP connectivity between WLC’s
2) Same workgroup name
3) Same virtual interface IP (ex. 1.1.1.1 in labs)
4) The MAC and IP of every other device in the group

What is a mobility domain?
The scope of communication between WLC’s in a WLAN

Mobility groups can be used to isolate roaming between different VLAN’s

Can clients roam between mobility domains?
No

What 4 things are required when a client is roaming between controllers?
1) Same mobility domain
2) Same revision of code
3) All AP’s need to have same SSID’s available
4) Again, virtual interface IP has to be the same

What is a simple way to describe intra-controller roaming?
New AP, same WLC

In intra-controller roaming, when is the client entry made in the database?
After the first AP association

What exactly is PKC?
Proactive key caching, it creates faster roaming times for 802.11i clients

What is a simple way to describe inter-controller roaming?
A client roams between two different WLC’s

What is the basic 4 step process of a client performing inter-controller roaming?
1) The client roams from WLC1 to WLC2
2) WLC2 makes a mobility announcement in order to find the WLC that has the client’s MAC (which is WLC1)
3) WLC1 responds to this announcement, handshakes and ack’s
4) This process moves the client DB entry to WLC2

How is L3 roaming accomplished?
Through a process called EoIP (ethernet over IP).
It is a tunnel created between controllers.
Original controller called “anchor”, the new controller is called the “foreign”

What are the two types of L3 roaming?
1) Symmetric
2) Asymmetric

The 3 primary components of WLC configuration are:
1) WLAN – the SSID and its corresponding parameters
2) Interface – virt. conn. to IP stack
3) Port – phys. connection to wired LAN

Two types of interface on a WLC are:
1) Static
2) Dynamic

Out of the two types of interfaces on a WLC, which one is created by the WLC and which one is created by an administrator?
Static: WLC
Dynamic: Administrator

Describe the management interface:
For in-band management
Used to communicate with other NW devs.
Also used by LAP in discovery phase

Describe the AP manager interface:
This is how the WLC communicates with LAP’s

Describe the virtual interface:
Used by WLC to terminate VPN’s from LAP’s, for DHCP relay connections, mobility management etc

What is special about the virtual interface?
It should not have a routable IP

Describe the service port:
For out-of-band management

What is special about the service port?
No trunking support

Describe the role of dynamic interfaces:
They link SSID’s to VLAN’s

What is the maximum amount of dynamic interfaces allowed on a WLC?
512

What 4 roles can an AP fulfill?
1) AP
2) Repeater
3) WG bridge
4) Scanner

3 things required for converting an autonomous AP to an LWAPP LAP are:
1) Upgrade tool
2) IPSU tool
3) LAP IOS image

What version does the LAP IOS image have to be?
12.3 (7) JA or above

What does the text file contain which is used to upgrade the IOS for LAP purposes?
1) IP of AP
2) Username/PW for telnet auth
3) Enable mode PW

What IP is used for TFTP servers pushing out autonomous AP IOS images?
It must be on the 10.0.0.0 /24 NW

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2017