CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Answers 2017

1. A network administrator enters the command copy running-config startup-config. Which type of memory will the startup configuration be placed into?

flash

RAM

NVRAM*

ROM

 

2. Which packet-forwarding method does a router use to make switching decisions when it is using a forwarding information base and an adjacency table?

fast switching

Cisco Express Forwarding*

process switching

flow process

 

Fill in the blank.

3. When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the Routing table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.

 

4. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

A router connects multiple IP networks.*

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It determines the best path to send packets.*

It provides segmentation at Layer 2.

It builds a routing table based on ARP requests.

 

5. In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

hostname

IP address*

subnet mask*

default gateway*

DNS server address

DHCP server address

 

6. Which software is used for a network administrator to make the initial router configuration securely?

SSH client software

Telnet client software

HTTPS client software

terminal emulation client software*

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?

 

IPv6 enable

clockrate 128000

end

no shutdown*

 

8. What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?​

The no shutdown command is required to place this interface in an UP state.​

It is a logical interface internal to the router.*

Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a router.​

It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices.

 

9. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

IP addresses*

MAC addresses

Layer 1 statuses*

next-hop addresses

interface descriptions

speed and duplex settings

 

10. Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)

destination IP address*

destination MAC address

source MAC address

subnet mask*

network number

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC A sends a request to Server B. What IPv4 address is used in the destination field in the packet as the packet leaves PC A?

 

192.168.10.10

192.168.11.1

192.168.10.1

192.168.12.16*

 

12. Refer to the exhibit.

What does R1 use as the MAC address of the destination when constructing the frame that will go from R1 to Server B?

 

If the destination MAC address that corresponds to the IPv4 address is not in the ARP cache, R1 sends an ARP request.*

The packet is encapsulated into a PPP frame, and R1 adds the PPP destination address to the frame.

R1 uses the destination MAC address of S1.

R1 leaves the field blank and forwards the data to the PC.

 

13. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

 

nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network

remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0*

open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one

open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out S0/0/0

 

14. Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?

 

Drop the packet.

Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.*

Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.

 

15. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.*

A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.

The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.

Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.*

The metric is always determined based on hop count.

The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.

 

16. Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? (Choose two.)​

hop count

bandwidth*

jitter

resiliency

delay*

confidentiality

 

17. What route would have the lowest administrative distance?

a directly connected network*

a static route

a route received through the EIGRP routing protocol

a route received through the OSPF routing protocol

 

18. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.*

A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.

The value of the administrative distance cannot be altered by the network administrator.

Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.*

The metric is always determined based on hop count.

The metric varies depending on which Layer 3 protocol is being routed.

 

19. Consider the following routing table entry for R1:

D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0

What is the significance of the Serial0/0/0?

It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24.*

It is the R1 interface through which the EIGRP update was learned.

It is the interface on the final destination router that is directly connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.

It is the interface on the next-hop router when the destination IP address is on the 10.1.1.0/24 network.

 

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)

 

R1 does not know a route to any remote networks.*

The network FF00::/8 is installed through a static route command.

The interface Fa0/1 is configured with IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::12.*

Packets that are destined for the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:2::/64 will be forwarded through Fa0/1.

Packets that are destined for the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:2::54/128 will be forwarded through Fa0/0.

 

21. A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?

The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.*

The configuration needs to be saved first.

No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.

The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.

 

22. A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table

to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table*

 

23. What are two common types of static routes in routing tables? (Choose two)

a default static route*

a built-in static route by IOS

a static route to a specific network*

a static route shared between two neighboring routers

a static route converted from a route that is learned through a dynamic routing protocol

 

24. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

to enable the router as an IPv6 router*

to permit only unicast packets on the router

to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

 

25. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description with the routing table entries. (Not all options are used.)

 

172.16.2.2 -> next hop
10.3.0.0 -> destination network
21024000 -> metric
1 -> administrative distance
00:22:15 -> route timestamp
D -> route  source protocol

 

CCNA1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

Internet

intranet

extranet*

extendednet

 

2. A small business user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

 

3. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

 

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*

The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

 

4. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

Ctrl-Shift-X

Ctrl-Shift-6*

Ctrl-Z

Ctrl-C

 

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

 

letmein

secretin

lineconin

linevtyin*

 

6. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.*

This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router maintenance.

 

7. What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?

The SVI provides a physical interface for remote access to the switch.

The SVI provides a faster method for switching traffic between ports on the switch.

The SVI adds Layer 4 connectivity between VLANs.

The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch.*

 

8. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

duplex

unicast

multicast

broadcast*

 

9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

POP

BOOTP

ICMP*

IP*

PPP

 

10. What PDU is associated with the transport layer?

segment*

packet

frame

bits

 

11. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.

It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.

It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.*

 

12. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?

fiber

radio waves*

microwave

UTP

 

13. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the communication carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)

crosstalk*

bandwidth

size of the network

signal modulation technique

electromagnetic interference*

 

14. What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two.)

internet

physical

LLC*

transport

MAC*

network access

 

15. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?

bus

hierarchical

mesh*

ring

star

 

16. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

access method*

flow control

message encapsulation

message encoding

 

17. If data is being sent over a wireless network, then connects to an Ethernet network, and eventually connects to a DSL connection, which header will be replaced each time the data travels through a network infrastructure device?

Layer 3

data link*

physical

Layer 4

 

18. What best describes the destination IPv4 address that is used by multicasting?

a single IP multicast address that is used by all destinations in a group*

an IP address that is unique for each destination in the group

a group address that shares the last 23 bits with the source IPv4 address

a 48 bit address that is determined by the number of members in the multicast group

 

19. In an Ethernet network, when a device receives a frame of 1200 bytes, what will it do?

drop the frame

process the frame as it is*

send an error message to the sending device

add random data bytes to make the frame 1518 bytes long and then forward it

 

20. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?

source MAC address

source IP address

destination MAC address*

Ethernet type

destination IP address

 

21. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

It initiates an ARP request.

It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

 

22. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

 

23. Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet using domain names? (Choose two.)

DNS*

WINS

HTTP

DHCP*

SMTP

 

24. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

connectionless*

media dependent

user data segmentation

reliable end-to-end delivery

 

25. Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a workstation. Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the workstation?

 

::1/128

fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128*

fe80::/64

2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128

 

26. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.

FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS.

RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.*

NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.

ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.*

 

27. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private network use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8*

172.16.0.0/12*

192.168.0.0/16*

100.64.0.0/14

169.254.0.0/16

239.0.0.0/8

 

28. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*

2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

2001:DB8::AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

 

29. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local*

unique local

site local

global unicast

 

30. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?

all IPv6 enabled devices across the network

all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link

all IPv6 DHCP servers

all IPv6 configured routers on the local link*

 

31. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

 

32. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

It sends four Echo Request messages.

It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.

It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.

It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.*

 

33. What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /26 mask?

256

254

64

62*

32

16

 

34. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

 

172.16.16.255

172.16.20.255

172.16.19.255*

172.16.23.255

172.16.255.255

 

35. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/29*

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28

 

36. Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?

2001:db8:0:f00::/52

2001:db8:0:8000::/52

2001:db8:0:f::/52

2001:db8:0:f000::/52*

 

37. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

The data flow is being tracked based on the destination port number utilized by each application.

The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number utilized by each application.*

The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address used by the PC of the technician.

The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address used by the PC of the technician.

 

38. What three services are provided by the transport layer? (Choose three.)

flow control*

encryption of data

path determination

connection establishment*

error recovery*

bit transmission

data representation

 

39. An Internet television transmission is using UDP. What happens when part of the transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.

The entire transmission is re-sent.

The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

 

40. Which two OSI model layers are considered to be included in the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

internet

network

presentation*

session*

transport

 

41. An author is uploading one chapter document from a personal computer to a file server of a book publisher. What role is the personal computer assuming in this network model?

client*

master

server

slave

transient

 

42. Which two automatic addressing assignments are supported by DHCP? (Choose two.)

local server address

subnet mask*

default gateway address*

physical address of the recipient

physical address of the sender

 

43. When a network administrator is trying to manage network traffic on a growing network, when should traffic flow patterns be analyzed?

during times of peak utilization*

during off-peak hours

during employee holidays and weekends

during randomly selected times

 

44. What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?

discovery and mapping of systems*

unauthorized manipulation of data

disabling network systems or services

denying access to resources by legitimate users

 

45. What will be the result of failed login attempts if the following command is entered into a router?

login block-for 150 attempts 4 within 90

All login attempts will be blocked for 150 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 90 seconds.*

All login attempts will be blocked for 90 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds.

All login attempts will be blocked for 1.5 hours if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds.

All login attempts will be blocked for 4 hours if there are 90 failed attempts within 150 seconds.

 

46. A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?

The NIC in the PC is bad.

The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled.

The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down.

Nothing can be determined for sure at this point.*

 

47. For Cisco IOS, which escape sequence allows terminating a traceroute operation?

Ctrl+Shift+6*

Ctrl+Esc

Ctrl+x

Ctrl+c

 

48. What is an advantage of storing configuration files to a USB flash drive instead of to a TFTP server?

The files can be saved without using terminal emulation software.

The transfer of the files does not rely on network connectivity.*

The USB flash drive is more secure.

The configuration files can be stored to a flash drive that uses any file system format.

 

49. Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network architecture. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

Protect the network from unauthorized access. -> security
Provide redundant links and devices. -> fault tolerance
— not scored —
Expand the network without degrading the service for existing users. -> scalability
— not scored —

 

50. Match the descriptions to the terms. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
CLI -> users interact with the operating system by typing commands
GUI -> enables the user to interact with the operating system by pointing and clicking
kernel -> the part of the OS that interacts directly with the device hardware
shell -> the part of the operating system that interfaces with applications and the user

51. Match the functions with the corresponding OSI layer. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

Application layer

HTTP and FTP
end user program functionality

Presentation layer

compression
common format

Session layer

dialog maintenance

52. Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco router. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
locale and load the Cisco IOS software -> phase 2
locate and load the startup configuration file -> phase 3
perform the POST and load the bootstrap program -> phase 1

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 11 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?

devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces

devices that have support for network monitoring

redundant devices

devices with support for modularity*

 

2. Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?

Internet router

firewall

low port density switch

redundancy*

 

3. Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.)

email

web

FTP

voice*

video*

 

4. A network administrator for a small company is contemplating how to scale the network over the next three years to accommodate projected growth. Which three types of information should be used to plan for network growth? (Choose three.)

human resource policies and procedures for all employees in the company

documentation of the current physical and logical topologies*

analysis of the network traffic based on protocols, applications, and services used on the network*

history and mission statement of the company

inventory of the devices that are currently used on the network*

listing of the current employees and their role in the company

 

5. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.

Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.

Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.*

Perform the capture on different network segments.*

Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.

 

6. Some routers and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe?

configuration

environmental*

electrical

maintenance

 

7. Which type of network threat is intended to prevent authorized users from accessing resources?

DoS attacks*

access attacks

reconnaissance attacks

trust exploitation

 

8. Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful network attack on an email server account? (Choose two.)

Never send the password through the network in a clear text.*

Never use passwords that need the Shift key.

Use servers from different vendors.

Distribute servers throughout the building, placing them close to the stakeholders.

Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.*

 

9. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses initiated from internal hosts?

application filtering

stateful packet inspection*

URL filtering

packet filtering

 

10. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

to require users to prove who they are*

to determine which resources a user can access

to keep track of the actions of a user

to provide challenge and response questions

 

11. A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?

a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router* 

a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network

an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room

a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link

 

12. What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?

It allows a router to be configured using a graphical interface.

It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.*

It allows the router to be monitored through a network management application.

It allows secure transfer of the IOS software image from an unsecure workstation or server.

 

13. Which two steps are required before SSH can be enabled on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Give the router a host name and domain name.*

Create a banner that will be displayed to users when they connect.

Generate a set of secret keys to be used for encryption and decryption.*

Set up an authentication server to handle incoming connection requests.

Enable SSH on the physical interfaces where the incoming connection requests will be received.

 

14. What is the purpose of issuing the commands cd nvram: then dir at the privilege exec mode of a router?

to clear the content of the NVRAM

to direct all new files to the NVRAM

to list the content of the NVRAM*

to copy the directories from the NVRAM

 

15. Which command will backup the configuration that is stored in NVRAM to a TFTP server?

copy running-config tftp

copy tftp running-config

copy startup-config tftp*

copy tftp startup-config

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the network administrator?

 

Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.

H3 is not connected properly to the network.

Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.

Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.

Something is causing a time delay between the networks.*

 

17. When should an administrator establish a network baseline?

when the traffic is at peak in the network

when there is a sudden drop in traffic

at the lowest point of traffic in the network

at regular intervals over a period of time*

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

 

PC2

R1*

SW2

R2

SW1

 

19. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?

The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity.

To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.

CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface.*

Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

 

20. A network administrator for a small campus network has issued the show ip interface brief command on a switch. What is the administrator verifying with this command?

the status of the switch interfaces and the address configured on interface vlan 1*

that a specific host on another network can be reached

the path that is used to reach a specific host on another network

the default gateway that is used by the switch

 

21. A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the router that is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result after this command is issued?

The ARP cache is cleared.*

The current content of the ARP cache is displayed.

The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed.

The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface.

 

22. A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?

It forces the trace to use IPv6.*

It limits the trace to only 6 hops.

It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay.

It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period.

 

23. Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?

debug all

logging synchronous

show running-config​

terminal monitor*

 

24. Fill in the blank.
VoIP defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice data over an IP network

 

25. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The show file systems command provides information about the amount of free nvram and flash memory with the permissions for reading or writing data.

 

26. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The show version command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of the software configuration register.

27. Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

installing virus code to destroy surveillance recordings for certain days -> data loss
pretending to be someone else by using stolen personal information to apply for a credit card ->identity theft
preventing userd from accessing a website by sending a large number of link requests in a short period -> disruption of service
obtaining trade secret documents illegally -> information theft
— not scored —

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 10 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. Which two definitions accurately describe the associated application layer protocol? (Choose two.)

SMTP – transfers web pages from web servers to clients

Telnet – provides remote access to servers and networking devices*

DNS – resolves Internet names to IP addresses*

FTP – transfers email messages and attachments

HTTP – enables devices on a network to obtain IP addresses

 

2. The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of what three layers of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

physical

session*

network

presentation*

data link

transport

application*

 

3. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and encrypting data?

internetwork

session

presentation

application*

network access

 

4. What are two characteristics of the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

responsibility for logical addressing

responsibility for physical addressing

the creation and maintenance of dialogue between source and destination applications*

closest to the end user*

the establishing of window size

 

5. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from its ISP. The services that are required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)

FTP*

HTTP*

DNS

SNMP

DHCP

SMTP*

 

6. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?

A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.

A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.

A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.

A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.*

 

7. Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other student can access the file and copy it to a USB drive. Which networking model is being used?

peer-to-peer*

client-based

master-slave

point-to-point

 

8. What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common?

Both models have dedicated servers.

Both models support devices in server and client roles.*

Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols.

Both models are used only in the wired network environment.

 

9. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.*

When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.

IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.

POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.

 

10. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?

DNS

DHCP

SMTP

HTTP*

POP3

 

11. When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized business?

IMAP*

POP

SMTP

HTTPS

 

12. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).

The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.*

The message comes from a server offering an IP address.

The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.*

All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.*

Only the DHCP server receives the message.

 

13. What part of the URL, http://www.cisco.com/index.html, represents the top-level DNS domain?

.com*

www

http

index

 

14. Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)

providing IP addresses to local hosts

allowing data transfer between two network devices

mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts*

forwarding name resolution requests between servers*

retrieving email messages

 

15. Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?

a diagnostic FTP program

a program that is running on an FTP server*

a program that is running on an FTP client

an application that is used to request data from an FTP server

 

16. Which statement is true about FTP?

The client can choose if FTP is going to establish one or two connections with the server.

The client can download data from or upload data to the server.*

FTP is a peer-to-peer application.

FTP does not provide reliability during data transmission.

 

17. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?

Different SMB message types have a different format.

Clients establish a long term connection to servers.*

SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.

SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.

 

18. Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print services to Microsoft applications?

HTTP

SMTP

DHCP

SMB*

 

19. Fill in the blank.

What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server? HTTPS

 

20. Fill in the blank.
The HTTP message type used by the client to request data from the web server is the GET message.

 

21. Fill in the blank.
Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying the name servers? NSLOOKUP

 

22. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

peer-to-peer network

[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis

peer-to-peer aplication

[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

 

23. Match the function to the name of the application. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

— not scored —
DHCP -> dynamically assigns IP address to clients
DNS -> maps URLs to numerical addresses
IMAP -> allows viewing of messages on email clients
HTTP -> displays web pages
SMTP -> sends email messages
— not scored —

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?

PC_3

PC_1

PC_2*

PC_1 and PC_3

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 9 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. Which two characteristics are associated with UDP sessions? (Choose two.)

Destination devices receive traffic with minimal delay.*

Transmitted data segments are tracked.

Destination devices reassemble messages and pass them to an application.

Received data is unacknowledged.*

Unacknowledged data packets are retransmitted.

 

2. What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?

The message is lost because FTP does not use a reliable delivery method.

The FTP source host sends a query to the destination host.

The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.*

The entire FTP message is re-sent.

 

3. A host device needs to send a large video file across the network while providing data communication to other users. Which feature will allow different communication streams to occur at the same time, without having a single data stream using all available bandwidth?

window size

multiplexing*

port numbers

acknowledgments

 

4. What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a specific application?

registered port*

private port

dynamic port

source port

 

5. What type of information is included in the transport header?

destination and source logical addresses

destination and source physical addresses

destination and source port numbers*

encoded application data

 

6. What is a socket?

the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address

the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number*

the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers

the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers

 

7. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?

0 to 255

0 to 1023*

256 – 1023

1024 – 49151

 

8. Which flag in the TCP header is used in response to a received FIN in order to terminate connectivity between two network devices?

FIN

ACK*

SYN

RST

 

9. What is a characteristic of a TCP server process?

Every application process running on the server has to be configured to use a dynamic port number.

There can be many ports open simultaneously on a server, one for each active server application.*

An individual server can have two services assigned to the same port number within the same transport layer services.

A host running two different applications can have both configured to use the same server port.

 

10. Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)

ACK*

FIN

PSH

RST

SYN*

URG

 

11. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?

1 segment

10 segments*

100 segments

1000 segments

 

12. Which factor determines TCP window size?

the amount of data to be transmitted

the number of services included in the TCP segment

the amount of data the destination can process at one time*

the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time

 

13. During a TCP session, a destination device sends an acknowledgment number to the source device. What does the acknowledgment number represent?

the total number of bytes that have been received

one number more than the sequence number

the next byte that the destination expects to receive*

the last sequence number that was sent by the source

 

14. What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments?

port numbers

sequence numbers*

acknowledgment numbers

fragment numbers

 

15. What does TCP do if the sending source detects network congestion on the path to the destination?

The source host will send a request for more frequent acknowledgments to the destination.

The source will decrease the amount of data that it sends before it must receive acknowledgements from the destination.*

The destination will request retransmission of the entire message.

The source will acknowledge the last segment that is sent and include a request for a smaller window size in the message.

 

16. What is a characteristic of UDP?

UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.

Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.

UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received.*

UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.

 

17. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?

It just sends the datagrams.*

It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.

It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.

It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.

 

18. What happens if the first packet of a TFTP transfer is lost?

The client will wait indefinitely for the reply.

The TFTP application will retry the request if a reply is not received.*

The next-hop router or the default gateway will provide a reply with an error code.

The transport layer will retry the query if a reply is not received.

 

19. A host device is receiving live streaming video. How does the device account for video data that is lost during transmission?

The device will immediately request a retransmission of the missing data.

The device will use sequence numbers to pause the video stream until the correct data arrives.

The device will delay the streaming video until the entire video stream is received.

The device will continue receiving the streaming video, but there may be a momentary disruption.*

 

20. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

to ensure the fastest possible download speed

because HTTP is a best-effort protocol

because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

because HTTP requires reliable delivery*

 

21. When is UDP preferred to TCP?

when a client sends a segment to a server

when all the data must be fully received before any part of it is considered useful

when an application can tolerate some loss of data during transmission*

when segments must arrive in a very specific sequence to be processed successfully

 

22. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)

SMTP*

FTP*

SNMP

HTTP*

TFTP

DHCP

23. Refer to the exhibit. Consider a datagram that originates on the PC and that is destined for the web server. Match the IP addresses and port numbers that are in that datagram to the description. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

The number of broadcast domains is increased.

The size of the broadcast domain is increased.*

The number of collision domains is reduced.

The size of the collision domain is increased.

 

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there?

 

1

2

3

4*

 

3. What are two reasons a network administrator might want to create subnets? (Choose two.)

simplifies network design

improves network performance*

easier to implement security policies*

reduction in number of routers needed

reduction in number of switches needed

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

 

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128*

255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.240

 

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

 

IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33*

IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46

IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1

 

6. If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?

256

254

62

32

16

14*

 

7. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128

255.255.255.224*

255.255.255.240

 

8. How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?

510

512

1022*

1024

2046

2048

 

9. How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks?

two

three*

four

five

 

10. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224*

255.255.255.240

255.255.255.248

255.255.255.252

 

11. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.16/28

192.168.1.64/27*

192.168.1.128/27

192.168.1.96/28*

192.168.1.192/28

 

12. A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.248. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?

4

6*

8

10

12

 

13. Refer to the exhibit.

Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many total host addresses are unused in the assigned subnets?

 

56

60

64

68

72*

 

14. Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having to remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?

 

10.16.10.160/26

10.16.10.128/28

10.16.10.64/27*

10.16.10.224/26

10.16.10.240/27

10.16.10.240/28

 

15. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

random static addresses to improve security

addresses from different subnets for redundancy

predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*

dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

 

16. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

It eliminates most address configuration errors.*

It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.

It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.

It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.

It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

 

17. A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

254

251*

252

253

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the sub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the subnet section to indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site?

 

0

4

16*

256

 

19. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

2001:DB8:BC15

2001:DB8:BC15:A*

2001:DB8:BC15:A:1

2001:DB8:BC15:A:12

 

20. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60

 

21. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
192.168.1.68 -> 192.168.1.64/27
— not scored —
192.168.1.48 -> 192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.121 -> 192.168.1.96/27

 

22. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
192.168.0.192 /27   -> Network C
— not scored —
192.168.0.0 /25       -> Network A
192.168.0.224 /30  -> Network D
192.168.0.128 /26   -> Network B

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 7 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

32*

64

128

256

 

2. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

subnet portion

network portion*

logical portion

host portion*

physical portion

broadcast portion

 

3. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

network address

multicast address

host address*

broadcast address

 

4. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

to uniquely identify a host on a network

to identify whether the address is public or private

to determine the subnet to which the host belongs*

to mask the IP address to outsiders

 

5. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

255.255.255.248

255.255.224.0

255.255.240.0*

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.192

 

6. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

limited broadcast

multicast

directed broadcast*

unicast

 

7. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*

The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.*

Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

 

8. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.1.1.1*

172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.16.4.4*

192.168.5.5*

224.6.6.6

 

9. Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.)

trunking

dual stack*

encapsulation

tunneling*

multiplexing

 

10. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB : 0000 : 0000 : 0057?

3FFE : 1044 :: AB :: 57

3FFE : 1044 :: 00AB :: 0057

3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : AB :: 57*

3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : 00AB :: 0057

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 57

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 0057

 

11. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

global unicast

link-local*

loopback

unique local

 

12. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)

multicast

loopback*

link-local*

anycast

broadcast

 

13. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP*

a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network*

 

14. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

SLAAC

stateless DHCPv6*

stateful DHCPv6

RA and EUI-64

 

15. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?

ARPv6

DHCPv6

ICMPv6*

UDP

 

16. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device

the IP address of the router nearest the destination device

the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source*

the destination device is reachable through the network*

the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

 

17. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

 

18. What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?

The host is cabled properly.

The default gateway address is correctly configured.

All hosts on the local link are available.

The link-local address is correctly configured.

IP is properly installed on the host.*

 

19. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message

when the RTT value reaches zero

when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message

when the value in the TTL field reaches zero*

when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

 

20. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

TTL field

CRC field

Hop Limit field*

Time Exceeded field

 

21. Fill in the blank.

The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is 149 .

 

22. Fill in the blank.
The binary equivalent of the decimal number 232 is 11101000

23. Fill in the blank.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F? 63

 

24. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)

169.254.1.5 -> a link-local address
192.0.2.123 -> a TEST-NET address
240.2.6.255 -> an experimental address
172.19.20.5 -> a private address
127.0.0.1 -> a loopback address

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 6 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. Which characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model allows carrying packets for multiple types of communications among many hosts?

the de-encapsulation of headers from lower layers

the selection of paths for and direct packets toward the destination

the ability to operate without regard to the data that is carried in each packet*

the ability to manage the data transport between processes running on hosts

 

2. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection*

operates independently of the network media*

retransmits packets if errors occur

re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end

guarantees delivery of packets

 

3. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?

Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.

Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host.*

Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport services are not available.

The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.

 

4. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?

Time-to-Live*

Sequence Number

Acknowledgment Number

Differentiated Services

 

5. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?

Protocol*

Identification

Version

Differentiated Services

 

6. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?

smaller-sized header

little requirement for processing checksums

smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses

efficient packet handling*

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which route from the PC1 routing table will be used to reach PC2?

*

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet?

 

FastEthernet0/0

FastEthernet0/1

Serial0/0/0

Serial0/0/1*

 

9. What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?

static route

default route

directly connected route*

dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP

 

10. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

directly-connected routes

local routes

remote routes*

C and L source routes

 

11. Which statement describes a hardware feature of a Cisco 1941 router that has the default hardware configuration?

It does not have an AUX port.

It has three FastEthernet interfaces for LAN access.

It has two types of ports that can be used to access the console.*

It does not require a CPU because it relies on Compact Flash to run the IOS.

 

12. Following default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

Perform the POST routine.

Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.*

Load the bootstrap program from ROM.

Load the running-config file from RAM.

 

13. What are two types of router interfaces? (Choose two.)

SVI

LAN*

DHCP

Telnet

WAN*

 

14. Which two pieces of information are in the RAM of a Cisco router during normal operation? (Choose two.)

Cisco IOS*

backup IOS file

IP routing table*

basic diagnostic software

startup configuration file

 

15. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

The IOS image is corrupt.

Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.*

The POST process has detected hardware failure.

 

16. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device

to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup*

to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using

to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS

 

17. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)

interface fastethernet 0/0

line vty 0 4

line console 0*

enable secret cisco

login*

password cisco*

 

18. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing.

The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling.*

Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.

The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.

 

19. Open the PT Activity. The enable password on all devices is cisco.
Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

For what reason is the failure occurring?

PC1 has an incorrect default gateway configured.

SW1 does not have a default gateway configured.*

The IP address of SW1 is configured in a wrong subnet.

PC2 has an incorrect default gateway configured.

20. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

Place de options in the following order.

R1(config)# -> service password-encrytion
R1> -> enable
– not scored –
R1# -> copy running-config startup-config
R1(config-line)# -> login
R1(config-if)# -> ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 5 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

The frame is dropped.*

The frame is returned to the originating network device.

The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.

The frame is sent to the default gateway.

 

2. What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)

56 bytes

64 bytes*

128 bytes

1024 bytes

1518 bytes*

 

3. What statement describes Ethernet?

It defines the most common LAN type in the world.*

It is the required Layer 1 and 2 standard for Internet communication.

It defines a standard model used to describe how networking works.

It connects multiple sites such as routers located in different countries.

 

4. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)

Logical link control is implemented in software.*

Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.

The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.

The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite.*

The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.

 

5. What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

They must be globally unique.*

They are only routable within the private network.

They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.

They have a 32-bit binary value.

 

6. Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

MAC addresses are implemented by software.

A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.

The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.*

The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

 

7. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

0.0.0.0

255.255.255.255

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*

127.0.0.1

01-00-5E-00-AA-23

 

8. What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?

the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets

the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames

the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets

the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames*

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

The switch will discard the frame.

The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.

The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.*

The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

 

10. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?

cut-through

fast-forward

fragment-free

store-and-forward*

 

11. What is auto-MDIX?

a type of Cisco switch

an Ethernet connector type

a type of port on a Cisco switch

a feature that detects Ethernet cable type*

 

12. True or False?

When a device is sending data to another device on a remote network, the Ethernet frame is sent to the MAC address of the default gateway.

true*

false

 

13. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?

Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address*

Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address

Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address

Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

 

14. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.*

RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.

RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.

SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.

SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D?

 

Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D.

Host D sends an ARP request to host A.

Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch sends the packet only to the host D, which in turn responds.

Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.*

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

 

only host D

only router R1

only hosts A, B, and C

only hosts A, B, C, and D

only hosts B and C

only hosts B, C, and router R1*

 

17. Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?

They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network.

They are received and processed by every device on the local network.*

They are dropped by all switches on the local network.

They are received and processed only by the target device.

 

18. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)

Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.

On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.*

Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.*

Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.

Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.

 

19. Fill in the blank.
A collision fragment, also known as a RUNT frame, is a frame of fewer than 64 bytes in length.

 

20. Fill in the blank.

On a Cisco switch, port-based memory buffering is used to buffer frames in queues linked to specific incoming and outgoing ports.

 

21. Fill in the blank.
ARP spoofing is a technique that is used to send fake ARP messages to other hosts in the LAN. The aim is to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC addresses.

22. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

Sort elements
cut-through (A) -> low latency (A)
cut-through (B) -> may forward runt frames (B)
cut-through (C) -> begins forwarding when the destination address is received (C)
store-and-forward (D) -> always stores the entire frame (D)
store-and-forward (E) -> checks the CRC before forwarding (E)
store-and-forward (F) -> checks the frame length before forwarding (F)

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 4 Exam Answers 2017 (100%)

1. What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.)

to reduce the number of collisions on the media

to distinguish data bits from control bits*

to provide better media error correction

to identify where the frame starts and ends*

to increase the media throughput

 

2. What is indicated by the term throughput?

the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP

the capacity of a particular medium to carry data

the measure of the usable data transferred across the media

the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time*

the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

 

3. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

EMI*

crosstalk

RFI*

signal attenuation

extended length of cabling

 

4. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting

the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires*

the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths

the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

 

5. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

twisting the wires together into pairs*

wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs

encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

terminating the cable with special grounded connectors

 

6. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?

 

1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through

1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover*

1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover

1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

The wrong type of connector is being used.

The untwisted length of each wire is too long.*

The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

 

8. Which type of connector does a network interface card use?

DIN

PS-2

RJ-11

RJ-45*

 

9. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?

It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.

It is able to be installed around sharp bends.

It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.

It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.*

 

10. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.

They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.

They increase the speed at which the data can travel.

They allow for full-duplex connectivity.*

 

11. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

mobility options

security*

interference*

coverage area*

extensive cabling

packet collision

 

12. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

application

transport

data link*

physical

 

13. What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

It encrypts data packets.

It determines the path to forward packets.

It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.*

It provides media access control and performs error detection.*

It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.

 

14. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.

Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.

Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.

Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.*

 

15. Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the same time?

full duplex*

half duplex

multiplex

simplex

 

16. Which statement describes an extended star topology?

End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central intermediate devices.*

End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device.

Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.

All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA

None of the networks require media access control.

Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.*

Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.

Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

 

18. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

logical address

physical address

data

error detection*

 

19. As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame?

The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.*

The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached.

The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address.

The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame.

 

20. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?

to verify the integrity of the received frame*

to verify the physical address in the frame

to verify the logical address in the frame

to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame

 

21. Fill in the blank.

The term bandwidth indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).

 

22. Fill in the blank.

What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame? LLC

 

23. Fill in the blank.

A physical topology that is a variation or combination of a point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topology is commonly known as a hybrid topology.

24. Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber. (Not all options are used.)

Place de options in the following order.

Multimode Fiber

LED as light source
several paths of light into the fiber
generally used with LANs

Single-mode Fiber

only one ray of light into the fiber
generally used for campus backbone
laser as light source

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2017