CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 10 Exam Answers 2017

1. A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?

The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.

The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.*

The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.

The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established from a non-directly connected network.

 

2. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?​

The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity​.

To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.

CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface​.*

Because it runs at the data link layer​, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

 

3. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices*

to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)

Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.

Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.*

Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client.

The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2.*

The IP address of R2 is 192.168.1.2.

 

5. Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.

All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.

NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.*

NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.*

NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.

 

6. The command ntp server 10.1.1.1 is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?

determines which server to send system log files to

identifies the server on which to store backup configurations

ensures that all logging will have a time stamp associated with it

synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1*

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the syslog message that was generated by the router? (Choose two.)

This message resulted from an unusual error requiring reconfiguration of the interface.

This message indicates that the interface should be replaced.

This message is a level 5 notification message.*

This message indicates that service timestamps have been configured.*

This message indicates that the interface changed state five times.

 

8. Which protocol or service allows network administrators to receive system messages that are provided by network devices?

syslog*

NTP

SNMP

NetFlow

 

9. Which syslog message type is accessible only to an administrator and only via the Cisco CLI?

errors

debugging*

emergency

alerts

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. From what location have the syslog messages been retrieved?

syslog server

syslog client

router RAM*

router NVRAM

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 17:46:26.143 represent?

the time passed since the syslog server has been started

the time when the syslog message was issued*

the time passed since the interfaces have been up

the time on the router when the show logging command was issued

 

12. What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

terminal line

syslog server

console line*

workstation

 

13. A network administrator has issued the logging trap 4 global configuration mode command. What is the result of this command?

After four events, the syslog client will send an event message to the syslog server.

The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and higher.

The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and lower.​*

The syslog client will send to the syslog server event messages with an identification trap level of only 4.​

 

14. What is the major release number in the IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?

2

3

15*

52

1900

 

15. What statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the &##8220;universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?

It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.

It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.

It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.

It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong cryptographic functionality.​*

 

16. What code in the Cisco IOS 15 image filename c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin indicates that the file is digitally signed by Cisco?

SPA*

universalk9

M

mz

 

17. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.

Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.

Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.

Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.*

Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.*

 

18. A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom

What is the effect of the command sequence?

On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.

The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.

The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.*

The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.

 

19. A network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a 2900 series ISR. What command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash memory as well as how much flash memory is currently available?

show flash0:*

show version

show interfaces

show startup-config

 

20. Beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is a prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?

IPBase*

DATA

UC

SEC

 

21. Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?

DATA*

IPVoice

Security*

Enterprise Services

Unified Communications*

Advanced IP Services

 

22. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

Software Claim Certificate

End User License Agreement

Unique Device Identifier

Product Activation Key*

 

23. In addition to IPBase, what are the three technology packs that are shipped within the universal Cisco IOS Software Release 15 image? (Choose three.)

Advanced IP Services

Advanced Enterprise Services

DATA*

Security*

SP Services

Unified Communications*

 

24. Which command would a network engineer use to find the unique device identifier of a Cisco router?

show version

show license udi*

show running-configuration

license install stored-location-url

 

25. Which command is used to configure a one-time acceptance of the EULA for all Cisco IOS software packages and features?

license save

show license

license boot module module-name

license accept end user agreement*

 

26. Refer to the exhibit. Match the components of the IOS image name to their description. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 9 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which method is used by a PAT-enabled router to send incoming packets to the correct inside hosts?

It uses the destination TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.*
It uses the source IP address on the incoming packet.
It uses the source TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.
It uses a combination of the source TCP or UDP port number and the destination IP address on the incoming packet.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

10.1.1.2
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network
192.168.0.100
209.165.20.25*

3 Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

NAT overload is also known as “Port Address Translation

4. A network administrator is configuring a static NAT on the border router for a web server located in the DMZ network. The web server is configured to listen on TCP port 8080. The web server is paired with the internal IP address of 192.168.5.25 and the external IP address of 209.165.200.230. For easy access by hosts on the Internet, external users do not need to specify the port when visiting the web server. Which command will configure the static NAT?

R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 80 209.165.200.230 8080
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 8080 209.165.200.230 80*
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.230 80 192.168.5.25 8080
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.230 8080 192.168.5.25 80

5. What is defined by the ip nat pool command when configuring dynamic NAT?

the pool of available NAT servers
the range of external IP addresses that internal hosts are permitted to access
the range of internal IP addresses that are translated
the pool of global address*

6. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
PAT using an external interface*
static NAT with one entry
static NAT with a NAT pool

7. What is the primary purpose of NAT?

conserve IPv4 addresses*
increase network security
allow peer-to-peer file sharing
enhance network performance

8. What is the major benefit of using NAT with Port Address Translation?

It allows external hosts access to internal servers.
It improves network performance for real-time protocols.
It allows many internal hosts to share the same public IPv4 address.*
It provides a pool of public addresses that can be assigned to internal hosts.

9. What is a characteristic of unique local addresses?

They allow sites to be combined without creating any address conflicts.*
They are designed to improve the security of IPv6 networks.
Their implementation depends on ISPs providing the service.
They are defined in RFC 3927.

10. A network administrator configures the border router with the command R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp. What is required to be configured in order for this particular command to be functional?

a NAT pool named corp that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses*
an access list named corp that defines the private addresses that are affected by NAT
an access list numbered 4 that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses
ip nat outside to be enabled on the interface that connects to the LAN affected by the NAT
a VLAN named corp to be enabled and active and routed by R1

11. Which statement describes IPv6 ULAs?

They conserve IPv6 address space.
They begin with the fe80::/10 prefix.
They are assigned by an ISP.
They are not routable across the internet.*

12. What is the purpose of port forwarding?

Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.*
Port forwarding allows users to reach servers on the Internet that are not using standard port numbers.
Port forwarding allows an internal user to reach a service on a public IPv4 address that is located outside a LAN.
Port forwarding allows for translating inside local IP addresses to outside local addresses.

13. When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?

No users can access the server.
The request to the server for the seventh user fails.*
All users can access the server.
The first user gets disconnected when the seventh user makes the request.

14. A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?

The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.*
The company needs to have more public IP addresses available to be used on the Internet.
The company router must throttle or buffer traffic because the processing power of the router is not enough to handle the normal load of external-bound Internet traffic.
The company has a small number of servers that should be accessible by clients from the Internet.

15. Match the steps with the actions that are involved when an internal host with IP address 192.168.10.10 attempts to send a packet to and external server at the IP address 209.165.200.254 across a router R1 that running dynamic NAT. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
step 5 => R1 replaces the address 192.168.10.10 with a translated inside global address.
step 2 => R1 checks the NAT configuration to determine if this packet should be translated.
step 4 => R1 selects an available global address from the dynamic address pool.
step 1 => The cost sends packets that request a connection to the server at the address 209.165.200.254
step 3 => If there is no translation entry for this IP address, R1 determines that the source address 192.168.10.10 must be translated.

16. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing.*
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated*
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

18. What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)

Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.*
Create a standard access list to define applications that should be translated.
Define the range of source ports to be used.
Identify the inside interface.*
Define the hello and interval timers to match the adjacent neighbor router.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server?

Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. *
Interface Fa0/1 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.
The IP NAT statement is incorrect.
The configuration is missing a valid access control list.

20. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.*
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network. *
It increases routing performance. It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.
It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.

21. What is an advantage of deploying IPv4 NAT technology for internal hosts in an organization?

makes internal network access easy for outside hosts using UDP
provides flexibility in designing the IPv4 addressing scheme*
increases the performance of packet transmission to the Internet
enables the easy deployment of applications that require end-to-end traceability

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 8 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

unicast DHCPACK

broadcast DHCPACK

unicast DHCPREQUEST

broadcast DHCPREQUEST*

 

 2. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255*

both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server

MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server

 

3. Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?

manual allocation

pre-allocation

automatic allocation

dynamic allocation*

 

4. Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?

client IP address

client hardware address*

gateway IP address

broadcast MAC address

 

5. As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST*

DHCPACK

 

6. What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent?

It will allow DHCPDISCOVER messages to pass without alteration.

It can forward both broadcast and multicast messages on behalf of clients.

It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services.*

It reduces the response time from a DHCP server.

 

7. An administrator issues the commands:

Router(config)# interface g0/1
Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp

What is the administrator trying to achieve?

configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server*

configuring the router to act as a relay agent

configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

 

8. Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)

The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.*

The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.

The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.

This is an ISP requirement.*

The router has a fixed IP address.

 

9. A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?​

the all-routers multicast address

the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network*

the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network

the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network

 

10. A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.

It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.

It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.*

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique.

 

11. A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?

DHCPv6 SOLICIT

DHCPv6 REQUEST

DHCPv6 ADVERTISE

DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST*

 

12. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

SLAAC

stateless DHCPv6*

stateful DHCPv6

RA and EUI-64

 

13. How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?

It sends an ARP message with the IPv6 address as the destination IPv6 address.

It checks with the IPv6 address database that is hosted by the SLAAC server.

It contacts the DHCPv6 server via a special formed ICMPv6 message.

It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.*

 

14. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface*

a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

 

15. What two methods can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC? (Choose two.)

EUI-64*

random generation*

stateful DHCPv6

DAD

ARP

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q16

SLAAC

stateful DHCPv6

stateless DHCPv6*

static link-local

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q17

Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.*

Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1.

Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag.

Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q18

No virtual link-local address is configured.

The Duplicate Address Detection feature is disabled.

The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation.

The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation*

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q19

The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated.

The router is configured for SLAAC operation.*

The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.

The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0.

 

20. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.

Type a command to exclude the first fifteen useable IP addresses from a DHCPv4 address pool of the network 10.0.15.0/24.

Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15

 

21. Order the steps of configuring a router as a DHCPv4 server. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q21

Place the options in the following order:

[+] Step 2  -> Configure a DHCP pool.
[+] Step 1  -> Exclude IP addresses.
– not scored –
[+] Step 3  ->Define the default gateway router
– not scored –

 

22. Match the descriptions to the corresponding DHCPv6 sever type. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA v6.0 chapter 8 Q22

Place the options in the following order:

Stateless DHCPv6
[+] enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command
[+] clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server
[+] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command

Stateful DHCPv6
[#] the M flag is set to 1 in RA messages
[#] uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients
[#] enabled on the client with the ipv6 address dhcp command

CCNA 2 Routing and Switching Essentials v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2017

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2017

 

1. Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

management

user-generated

un tagged

tagged*

2. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number?

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number.*

An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.*

The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.

The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

3. A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in*

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

4. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

vty lines

VTP domain

loopback address*

default gateway

default VLAN*

IP address*

5. A network administrator configures a router to provide stateful DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations do not receive IPv6 addresses within the scope. Which configuration command should be checked to ensure that statefull DHCPv6 is implemented?

The dns-server line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.*

The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.

The ipv6 nd other-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.

The domain-name line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.

6. Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

Frames are forwarded without any error checking.

Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching accurs with lower latency.*

Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.

Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

7. Refer to the exhibit.

A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

10.0.0.31

172.16.12.5

172.16.12.33

192.168.1.10

172.16.25.35*

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

9. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip dhcp pool

ip address dhcp*

service dhcp

ip helper-address

 

10. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​

a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message

a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message​

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message​*

a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message​

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.*

 

12. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365*

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary.

 

13. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing.*

The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​

 

14. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Telnet

IPsec*

HTTP

ICMP

DNS

 

15. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

R1 Gi0/1.12*

R1 S0/0/0

R2 S0/0/1

R2 Gi0/1.20

inbound

outbound*

 

17. Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

destination MAC address

ICMP message type*

computer type

source TCP hello address

destination UDP port number*

 

18. A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN

in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server

in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN

in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device*

 

19. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

access list number between 1 and 99

access list number between 100 and 199*

default gateway address and wildcard mask

destination address and wildcard mask*

source address and wildcard mask*

source subnet mask and wildcard mask

destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

 

20. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

0.0.0.127

0.0.0.255

0.0.1.255*

0.0.255.255

A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

 

21. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list standard VTY

permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

 

22. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

permit ip any any

permit ip any host ip_address

permit icmp any any nd-na*

deny ip any any

 

23. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

 

24. Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

The ip route command was used.

The ipv6 route command was used.

Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.*

The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

 

25. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.

IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.

IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.

IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.*

 

26. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

child route

ultimate route

default route

level 1 parent route*

 

27. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*

ISP selection

speed of convergence*

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

 

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

directly attached static route

recursive static route*

fully specified static route

floating static route

 

29. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

 

30. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0

 

31. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

1

2

3*

4

 

32. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.

OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.*

 

33. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.

They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.

They request more information about their databases.

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.*

 

34. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.

Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

Cost equals bandwidth.

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*

 

35. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*

the type of network link*

the link next-hop IP address

the link bandwidth

the cost of that link*

 

36. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.*

The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*

The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.

The link interface subnet masks must match.*

The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

 

37. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

 

38. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*

The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

 

39. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding*

to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows

to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly

to determine which ports are functioning

 

40. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict*

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

 

41. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.

A cable has not been attached to the port.*

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.

There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

 

42. What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.

NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.

A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.*

 

43. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.*

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.

Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.​

 

44. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – trunk*

access – trunk

access – dynamic auto

 

45. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

Change the native VLAN on both ports.

Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.

Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.*

Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.

Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.*

 

46. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk*

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

 

47. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

 

48. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100

Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100

Switch(config)# no vlan 100*

 

49. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.

The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.*

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

 

50. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

All devices in all VLANs see the frame.

Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.*

Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

 

51. Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.

There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​*

The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​

 

52. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*

The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.

The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

 

53. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1*

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

 

54. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

Step 1 – Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.

Step 2 – Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.

Step 3 – Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

Step 4 – Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database

Step 5 – Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best

 

 

55. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

 

56. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains

5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains*

5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

 

57. What is a function of the distribution layer?

fault isolation

network access to the user

high-speed backbone connectivity

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*

 

58. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching*

59. Fill in the blank. In IPv6, all routes are level __1__ ultimate routes.

60. Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the __ip route__ global configuration command.

61. Fill in the blank. The OSPF Type 1 packet is the __Hello__ packet.

62. Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is __1__ .

63. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID*
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID

64. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport*

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# ip routing*

65. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0*
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

66. How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*
the lowest MAC address on an active interface

67. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

68. Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.)

69. A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?

static NAT
dynamic NAT*
port address translation

DHCP

70. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.

71. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.*
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.*
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.*
Configuration of static routes is error-free. Static routes scale well as the network grows.

72. When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair*
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration

73. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?

The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.*
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.

74. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

show processes show cdp neighbor
show access-lists*
show ip route
show running-config*

75. Refer to the exhibit.

What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?

192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22*
192.168.0.0/21

76. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses*

77. Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance*

78. Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?

flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM

79. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.*
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

80. Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?

Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
Change the administrative distance to 120.*

81. Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one for VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?

SW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.
SW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.*
SW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.

82. A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80 deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80*
permit ipv6 any any*
deny ipv6 any any

ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in*
ip access-group NoWeb in

83. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and 172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to neighbors?

router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0*
router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

84. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?

255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0*
255.255.255.224

85. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

1
5*
8
20
25
30

86. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

Flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM

87. A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect*
shutdown

88. A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this ACL?

access-group 11 in*
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

89. Refer to the exhibit.What address will summarize the LANs attached to routers 2-A and 3-A and can be configured in a summary static route to advertise them to an upstream neighbor?

10.0.0.0/24
10.0.0.0/23
10.0.0.0/22
10.0.0.0/21*

90. A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80

deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80*

deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80*

permit ipv6 any any

deny ipv6 any any*

ip access-group WebFilter in

ipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in

91. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

192.168.5.64
192.168.5.0*
192.168.0.0
No address is displayed.

92. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the interval web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board Office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implement the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed
the ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers
named ACLs requite the use of port numbers*
the ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction

93. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

1
2*
3
4
5
6

94. A router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for specific situation?

Metric*
Colour
Meter
Bread

95. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

Ipv6
OSPF
Link-access
To have only a link-local IPv6 address*
Protocol

96. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.*
Half duplex has only one channel.
All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.*

Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

97. Fill in the blank.The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network.

__VoIP__

98. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

99. Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?

S1(config-if)# mdix auto*
S1# auto-mdix S1(config-if)# auto-mdix
S1# mdix auto S1(config)# mdix auto
S1(config)# auto-mdix

100. What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured for OSPF?

Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.*
All of above
Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol

101. A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that are reachable over a TCP session
routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol*
routers that reside in the same area
routers that exchange LSAs

102. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

Address translation is working.*
Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.*
Two types of NAT are enabled.*
One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

103. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

console access –> Not Scored
full operating system –> flash
limited operating system –> ROM
routing table –> RAM
startup configuration file –> NVRAM

104. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*
Configure SSH for remote management.*
Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

105. Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

0.0.0.0
10.16.100.128*
10.16.100.2
110
791

106. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10*

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1

107. Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer
a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
a collapsed core network design*
a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

108. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

1
2
3
4
5*
6
11

109. A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for this specific situation?

routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance*

110. Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

administrative distance*
metric
outgoing interface
routing protocol

111. The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard mask?

0.0.0.31
0.0.0.255
0.0.0.127*
0.0.0.63

112. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

FF02::5*
FF02::6*
FF02::A
2001:db8:cafe::1
FF02::1:2
FE80::1*

113. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?​

65*

114. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2 LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from R1?

782
74*
128
65

115. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect
shutdown

116. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2
172.16.26.254
172.16.47.254*
172.16.48.5

117. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)

mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces*
a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is
used use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces
one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port
mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers*

118. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs as many switch ports as possible for end devices and the business is using the most common type of inter-VLAN method. What type of inter-VLAN interconnectivity is best to use between the switch and the router if R1 routes for all VLANs?

one link between the switch and the router with the router using three router subinterfaces
one link between the switch and the router with the one switch port being configured in access mode
three links between the switch and the router with the three switch ports being configured in access mode
two links between the switch and the router with the two switch ports being configured in access mode

119. A part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

120. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the internal web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

121. Refer to the exhibit. A new network policy requires an ACL denying FTP and Telnet access to a Corp file server from all interns. The address of the file server is 172.16.1.15 and all interns are assigned addresses in the 172.18.200.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, no one in the Corp network can access any of the servers. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

122. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

123. Router R1 routes traffic to the 10.10.0.0/16 network using an EIGRP learned route from Branch2. The administrator would like to install a floating static route to create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down. Which static route meets this goal?

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100***

124. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

172.16.100.64***

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 7 Exam Answers 2017

1. In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL placement?

when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound interfaces before the packets exit the interface*

when a router has more than one ACL

when an outbound ACL is closer to the source of the traffic flow

when an interface is filtered by an outbound ACL and the network attached to the interface is the source network being filtered within the ACL

 

2. Which address is required in the command syntax of a standard ACL?

source MAC address

destination MAC address

source IP address*

destination IP address

 

3. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?

In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.

Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.

Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.*

On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.

 

4. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.*

A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.*

A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE.

A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default.

Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.*

Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

 

5. What single access list statement matches all of the following networks?

192.168.16.0

192.168.17.0

192.168.18.0

192.168.19.0

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255*

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.15.255

access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255

 

6. A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23*

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0*

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

 

7. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?

4

6

8*

12

16

 

8. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)

Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.

Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.

Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.*

Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.*

Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.*

For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would be used in a standard ACL to allow only devices on the network attached to R2 G0/0 interface to access the networks attached to R1?

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.63

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.96 0.0.0.31*

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. If the network administrator created a standard ACL that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the devices on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied?

inbound on the R2 G0/0 interface

outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface*

inbound on the R1 G0/1 interface

outbound on the R2 S0/0/1 interface

 

11. Refer to the following output. What is the significance of the 4 match(es) statement?

R1# <output omitted>
10 permit 192.168.1.56 0.0.0.7
20 permit 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.63 (4 match(es))
30 deny any (8 match(es))

Four packets have been denied that have been sourced from any IP address.

Four packets have been denied that are destined for the 192.168.1.64 network.

Four packets have been allowed through the router from PCs in the network of 192.168.1.64.*

Four packets have been allowed through the router to reach the destination network of 192.168.1.64/26.

 

12. On which router should the show access-lists command be executed?

on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL to the final destination network

on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL from the source network

on any router through which the packet referenced in the ACL travels

on the router that has the ACL configured*

 

13. What is the quickest way to remove a single ACE from a named ACL?

Use the no keyword and the sequence number of the ACE to be removed.*

Use the no access-list command to remove the entire ACL, then recreate it without the ACE.

Copy the ACL into a text editor, remove the ACE, then copy the ACL back into the router.

Create a new ACL with a different number and apply the new ACL to the router interface.

 

14. Which feature will require the use of a named standard ACL rather than a numbered standard ACL?

the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol

the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination

the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic

the ability to add additional ACEs in the middle of the ACL without deleting and re-creating the list*

 

15. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in*

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out

 

16. Which type of router connection can be secured by the access-class command?

vty*

console

serial

Ethernet

 

17. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown?

R1# <output omitted>
Standard IP access list 2
10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches)
20 deny any (1 match)

Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10.x.

Traffic from one device was not allowed to come into one router port and be routed outbound a different router port.

Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.*

Traffic from two devices was allowed to enter one router port and be routed outbound to a different router port.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL was configured on R1 with the intention of denying traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0/24 into subnet 172.16.3.0/24. All other traffic into subnet 172.16.3.0/24 should be permitted. This standard ACL was then applied outbound on interface Fa0/0. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

Only traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet is blocked, and all other traffic is allowed.​

An extended ACL must be used in this situation.

The ACL should be applied to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1 inbound to accomplish the requirements.

All traffic will be blocked, not just traffic from the 172.16.4.0/24 subnet.*

The ACL should be applied outbound on all interfaces of R1.

 

20. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the access list 10 ACEs if the router is rebooted before any other commands are implemented?

The ACEs of access list 10 will be deleted.

The ACEs of access list 10 will not be affected.

The ACEs of access list 10 will be renumbered.*

The ACEs of access list 10 wildcard masks will be converted to subnet masks.

 

21. What is the effect of configuring an ACL with only ACEs that deny traffic?

The ACL will permit any traffic that is not specifically denied.

The ACL will block all traffic.*

The ACL must be applied inbound only.

The ACL must be applied outbound only.

 

22. Which type of ACL statements are commonly reordered by the Cisco IOS as the first ACEs?

host*

range

permit any

lowest sequence number

 

23. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to restrict access to certain servers in the data center. The intent is to apply the ACL to the interface connected to the data center LAN. What happens if the ACL is incorrectly applied to an interface in the inbound direction instead of the outbound direction?

All traffic is denied.

All traffic is permitted.

The ACL does not perform as designed.*

The ACL will analyze traffic after it is routed to the outbound interface.

 

24. When would a network administrator use the clear access-list counters command?

when obtaining a baseline

when buffer memory is low

when an ACE is deleted from an ACL

when troubleshooting an ACL and needing to know how many packets matched*

 

25. Match each statement with the example subnet and wildcard that it describes. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

192.168.15.65 255.255.255.240 ==> the first valid host address in a subnet
192.168.15.144 0.0.0.15 ==> subnetwork address of a subnet with 14 valid host addreses
host 192.168.15.2 ==> all IP address bits must match exactly
192.168.5.0 0.0.3.255 ==> hosts in a subnet with SM 255.255.252.0
192.168.3.64 0.0.0.7 ==> address with a subnet 255.255.255.248

 

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 6 Exam Answers 2017

1. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)

security*

a reduction in the number of trunk links

cost reduction*

end user satisfaction

improved IT staff efficiency*

no required configuration

 

2. Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?

data

default

native*

management

 

3. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​ (Choose two.)

between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs*

between a switch and a client PC

between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC*

between a switch and a network printer

between two switches that share a common VLAN

 

4. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.

Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.*

Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.

Enter the no shutdown command in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

 

5. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

unused VLAN ID

native VLAN ID*

data VLAN ID

management VLAN ID

 

6. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.

An error message would be displayed.

Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.*

VLAN 30 will be deleted.

7. Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

delete vlan.dat

delete flash:vlan.dat

no vlan 20*

no switchport access vlan 20

 

8. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

The port becomes inactive.*

The port goes back to the default VLAN.

The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.

The port creates the VLAN again.

 

9. Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.)

CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs.

VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094.

They are saved in the running-config file by default.*

VLANs are initialized from flash memory.

They are commonly used in small networks.

 

10. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?

It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.

It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.

It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.*

It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.

The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.

The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.

The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk.*

 

12. Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?

switchport nonegotiate

switchport mode dynamic auto

switchport trunk native vlan 66*

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99

 

13. What is a characteristic of legacy inter-VLAN routing?

Only one VLAN can be used in the topology.

The router requires one Ethernet link for each VLAN.*

The user VLAN must be the same ID number as the management VLAN.

Inter-VLAN routing must be performed on a switch instead of a router.

 

14. What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

does not support VLAN-tagged packets

requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing

does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs*

requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will drop the packet.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.*

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

access

trunk*

native

auto

 

17. A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?

A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.*

Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.

A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch.

A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure router-on-a-stick for the networks that are shown. How many subinterfaces will have to be created on the router if each VLAN that is shown is to be routed and each VLAN has its own subinterface?

1

2

3

4*

5

 

19. When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP address be assigned?

to the interface

to the subinterface*

to the SVI

to the VLAN

 

20. A high school uses VLAN15 for the laboratory network and VLAN30 for the faculty network. What is required to enable communication between these two VLANs while using the router-on-a-stick approach?

A multilayer switch is needed.

A router with at least two LAN interfaces is needed.

Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.

A switch with a port that is configured as a trunk is needed when connecting to the router.*

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?​

The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45.

The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.

The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.

There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*

 

22. Match the IEEE 802.1Q standard VLAN tag field with the descriptions. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
User Priority –> value that supports level or service implementation
Type –> value for the tag protocol ID value
Canonical Format Identifier –> identifier that enables Token Ring frames to be carried across Ethernet Links
– not scored – -value for the application protocol of the user data in a frame
VLAN ID –> VLAN number

 

23. Fill in the blank. Use the full command syntax.

The show vlan command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as the existing VLANs on the switch.

 

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?

PC-A, PC-B

PC-D, PC-E*

PC-A, PC-B, PC-E

PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E

PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 5 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch?

If the LED is green, the port is operating at 100 Mb/s.*

If the LED is off, the port is not operating.

If the LED is blinking green, the port is operating at 10 Mb/s.

If the LED is amber, the port is operating at 1000 Mb/s.

2. Which command is used to set the BOOT environment variable that defines where to find the IOS image file on a switch?

config-register

boot system*

boot loader

confreg

3. What is a function of the switch boot loader?

to speed up the boot process

to provide security for the vulnerable state when the switch is booting

to control how much RAM is available to the switch during the boot process

to provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be found*

4. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

VLAN 1*

Fa0/0

Fa0/1

interface connected to the default gateway

VLAN 99

5. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)

POST occurred normally.*

The boot process was interrupted.

There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.

A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.*

The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

6. Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)

Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.*

Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.

Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.

Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.

Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.*

7. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

to determine if remote access is enabled

when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host*

when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices

to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues in an Ethernet network with the command show interfaces fastEthernet 0/0. What conclusion can be drawn based on the partial output in the exhibit?

All hosts on this network communicate in full-duplex mode.

Some workstations might use an incorrect cabling type to connect to the network.

There are collisions in the network that cause frames to occur that are less than 64 bytes in length.

A malfunctioning NIC can cause frames to be transmitted that are longer than the allowed maximum length.*

9. Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.

There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.

There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.*

The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.

The interface might be configured as half-duplex.

10. If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?

on both ends of the connection

on the full-duplex end of the connection

only on serial interfaces

on the half-duplex end of the connection*

11. What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?

Telnet uses UDP as the transport protocol whereas SSH uses TCP.

Telnet does not provide authentication whereas SSH provides authentication.

Telnet supports a host GUI whereas SSH only supports a host CLI.

Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and password.*

12. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

Use SSH version 1.

Reconfigure the RSA key.

Configure SSH on a different line.

Modify the transport input command.*

13. What is the effect of using the switchport port-security command?

enables port security on an interface*

enables port security globally on the switch

automatically shuts an interface down if applied to a trunk port

detects the first MAC address in a frame that comes into a port and places that MAC address in the MAC address table

14. Where are dynamically learned MAC addresses stored when sticky learning is enabled with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?

ROM

RAM*

NVRAM

flash

15. A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?

restrict*

protect

warning

shutdown

16. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.

Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.*

The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.

After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.

If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.*

17. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?

Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.

Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.

Clear the MAC address table on the switch.

Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.*

18. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?

No one is allowed to disconnect the IP phone or the PC and connect some other wired device.
If a different device is connected, port Fa0/2 is shut down.
The switch should automatically detect the MAC address of the IP phone and the PC and add those addresses to the running configuration.

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky*

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

The port has been shut down.

The port has two attached devices.

The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.*

The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?

A notification is sent.

A syslog message is logged.

Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.*

The interface will go into error-disabled state.

21. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


Fill in the blank.
Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1? “ ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0

22. Match the step to each switch boot sequence description. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
step 3
– not scored –
step 1
step 4
step 2
step 5
step 6

23. Identify the steps needed to configure a switch for SSH. The answer order does not matter. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
[+] Create a local user.
[+] Generate RSA keys.
[+] Configure a domain name.
[+] Use the login local command.
[+] Use the transport input ssh command.
[+] Order does not matter within this group.

24. Match the link state to the interface and protocol status. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
disable -> administratively down
Layer 1 problem -> down/down
– not scored –
Layer 2 problem -> up/down
operational -> up/up

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 4 Exam Answers 2017

1. A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)

lower bandwidth requirements

reduced cost for equipment and user training

easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability*

less required equipment to provide the same performance levels

simpler deployment for additional switch equipment*

 

2. What is a collapsed core in a network design?

a combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers

a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers*

a combination of the functionality of the access and core layers

a combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers

 

3. What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?

access and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the distribution layer on a separate tier

access and distribution layers collapsed into one tier, and the core layer on a separate tier

distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier*

access, distribution, and core layers collapsed into one tier, with a separate backbone layer

 

4. What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?

acting as a backbone

aggregating all the campus blocks

aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries*

providing access to end user devices

 

5. Which two previously independent technologies should a network administrator attempt to combine after choosing to upgrade to a converged network infrastructure? (Choose two.)

user data traffic*

VoIP phone traffic*

scanners and printers

mobile cell phone traffic

electrical system

 

6. A local law firm is redesigning the company network so that all 20 employees can be connected to a LAN and to the Internet. The law firm would prefer a low cost and easy solution for the project. What type of switch should be selected?

fixed configuration*

modular configuration

stackable configuration

StackPower

StackWise

 

7. What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)

lower cost per switch

increased scalability*

lower forwarding rates

need for fewer power outlets*

availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation

 

8. Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

destination IP address

source IP address

destination MAC address

source MAC address*

 

9. Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

firewall

hub

router

switch*

 

10. What two criteria are used by a Cisco LAN switch to decide how to forward Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)

path cost

egress port

ingress port*

destination IP address

destination MAC address*

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?​

 

to Fa0/1 only​

to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only*

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only​

 

12. What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

forwards data based on logical addressing

duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port

learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address

determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address*

 

13. Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

 

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.*

SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

 

14. A small publishing company has a network design such that when a broadcast is sent on the LAN, 200 devices receive the transmitted broadcast. How can the network administrator reduce the number of devices that receive broadcast traffic?

Add more switches so that fewer devices are on a particular switch.

Replace the switches with switches that have more ports per switch. This will allow more devices on a particular switch.

Segment the LAN into smaller LANs and route between them.*

Replace at least half of the switches with hubs to reduce the size of the broadcast domain.

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are displayed?

 

1

4

8*

16

55

 

16. Which solution would help a college alleviate network congestion due to collisions?

a firewall that connects to two Internet providers

a high port density switch*

a router with two Ethernet ports

a router with three Ethernet ports

 

17. Which network device can serve as a boundary to divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?

router*

Ethernet bridge

Ethernet hub

access point

 

18. What is the destination address in the header of a broadcast frame?

0.0.0.0

255.255.255.255

11-11-11-11-11-11

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF*

 

19. Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected?

The broadcast domain expands to all switches.*

One collision domain exists per switch.

Frame collisions increase on the segments connecting the switches.

There is one broadcast domain and one collision domain per switch.

 

20. What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?

the memory space that is allocated to each switch port

the number of available ports*

the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port

the speed of each port

 

21. What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

to create fewer collision domains

to enhance user bandwidth*

to create more broadcast domains

to eliminate virtual circuits

to isolate traffic between segments*

to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

 

22. Fill in the blank.

A converged network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.

 

23. Match the borderless switched network guideline description to the principle. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

allows intelligent traffic load sharing by using all network resources -> flexibility

facilitates understanding the role of each device at every tier, simplifies deployment, operation, management, and reduces fault domains at every tier -> hierarchical

allows seamless network expansion and integrated service enablement on an on-demand basis -> modularity

satisfies user expectations for keeping the network always on -> resiliency

24. Match the functions to the corresponding layers. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

Access layer
[+] represents the network edge
[+] provides network access to the user

Distribution layer
[#] implements network access policy
[#] establishes Layer 3 routing boundaries

Core layer
[*] provides high-speed backbone connectivity
[*] functions as an aggregator for all the campus blocks

25. Match the forwarding characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

cut-throught:
+appropriate for high perfomance computing applications
+forwarding process can be begin after receiving the destination address
+may forward invalid frames

store-and-forward:
#error checking before forwarding
#forwarding process only begins after receiving the entire frame
#only forwards valid frames

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 3 Exam Answers 2017

1. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed to interconnect different Internet service providers?

BGP*

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP

 

2. Which routing protocol is limited to smaller network implementations because it does not accommodate growth for larger networks?

OSPF

RIP*

EIGRP

IS-IS

 

3. What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.)

discover hosts

update and maintain routing tables*

propagate host default gateways

network discovery*

assign IP addressing

 

4. When would it be more beneficial to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of static routing?

in an organization with a smaller network that is not expected to grow in size

on a stub network that has a single exit point

in an organization where routers suffer from performance issues

on a network where there is a lot of topology changes*

 

5. When would it be more beneficial to use static routing instead of dynamic routing protocols?

on a network where dynamic updates would pose a security risk*

on a network that is expected to continually grow in size

on a network that has a large amount of redundant paths

on a network that commonly experiences link failures

 

6. What is a purpose of the network command when configuring RIPv2 as the routing protocol?

It identifies the interfaces that belong to a specified network.*

It specifies the remote network that can now be reached.

It immediately advertises the specified network to neighbor routers with a classful mask.

It populates the routing table with the network entry.

 

7. A network administrator configures a static route on the edge router of a network to assign a gateway of last resort. How would a network administrator configure the edge router to automatically share this route within RIP?

Use the auto-summary command.

Use the passive-interface command.

Use the network command.

Use the default-information originate command.*

 

8. What is the purpose of the passive-interface command?

allows a routing protocol to forward updates out an interface that is missing its IP address

allows a router to send routing updates on an interface but not receive updates via that interface

allows an interface to remain up without receiving keepalives

allows interfaces to share IP addresses

allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface*

 

9. Which route would be automatically created when a router interface is activated and configured with an IP address?

D 10.16.0.0/24 [90/3256] via 192.168.6.9

C 192.168.0.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet 0/0*

S 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet 0/1

O 172.16.0.0/16 [110/65] via 192.168.5.1

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two types of routes could be used to describe the 192.168.200.0/30 route? (Choose two.)

 

ultimate route*

level 1 parent route

level 1 network route

level 2 child route*

supernet route

 

11. What occurs next in the router lookup process after a router identifies a destination IP address and locates a matching level 1 parent route?

The level 2 child routes are examined.*

The level 1 supernet routes are examined.

The level 1 ultimate routes are examined.

The router drops the packet.

 

12. Which route would be used to forward a packet with a source IP address of 192.168.10.1 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1?

C 192.168.10.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1

S 10.1.0.0/16 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0

O 10.1.1.0/24 [110/65] via 192.168.200.2, 00:01:20, Serial0/1/0*

S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.1

 

13. Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as an ultimate route in a router’s routing table? (Choose two.)

contain subnets

be a default route

contain an exit interface*

be a classful network entry

contain a next-hop IP address*

 

14. What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols?

They are only suitable for simple topologies.

Their configuration complexity increases as the size of the network grows.

They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by default.*

They require administrator intervention when the pathway of traffic changes.

 

15. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

sends subnet mask information in routing updates*

sends complete routing table update to all neighbors

is supported by RIP version 1

allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology*

reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output from the show ip route command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol? (Choose two.)

 

RIP version 2 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.*

The metric to the network 172.16.0.0 is 120.

RIP version 1 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.

The command no auto-summary has been used on the RIP neighbor router.*

RIP will advertise two networks to its neighbor.

 

17. While configuring RIPv2 on an enterprise network, an engineer enters the command network 192.168.10.0 into router configuration mode.

What is the result of entering this command?

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending version 1 and version 2 updates.

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is receiving version 1 and version 2 updates.

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending only version 2 updates.*

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending RIP hello messages.

 

18. A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind of route entry is this?

a static route

a route used as the default gateway

a network directly connected to a router interface

a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol*

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?

 

Serial0/0/0

Serial0/0/1*

GigabitEthernet0/0

GigabitEthernet0/1

 

20. Which type of route will require a router to perform a recursive lookup?

an ultimate route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is not using CEF*

a level 2 child route that is using an exit interface on a router that is not using CEF

a level 1 network route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is using CEF

a parent route on a router that is using CEF

 

21. Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2?

S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.0.2

S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9*

S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1

S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0

 

22. A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic?

a 192.168.14.0/26 route that is learned via RIP*

a 192.168.14.0/24 route that is learned via EIGRP

a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via OSPF

a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via RIP

 

23. What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries?

IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not.

By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes.*

The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4 route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix.

IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4.

 

24. Match the dynamic routing protocol component to the characteristic. (Not all options are used.)

data structures
tables or databases that are stored in RAM

routing protocol messages
exchanges routing information and maintains accurate information about networks

algorithm
a finite list of steps used to determine the best path

25. Match the characteristic to the corresponding type of routing. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
[+] typically used on stub networks
[+] less routing overhead
[#] new networks are added automatically to the routing table
[#] best choice for large networks

CCNA2 v6.0 Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2017

1. What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.*

Static routing scales well with expanding networks.

Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.

Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.*

Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.

 

2. Refer to the exhibit. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?

Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1.

Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1.*

Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1.

Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all routes.

 

3. What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?

ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0

ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120*

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1

 

4. What is a characteristic of a static route that matches all packets?

It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.

It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.*

It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

 

5. What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?

dynamic route

default route*

destination route

generic route

 

6. Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?

to be used as a backup route*

to load-balance the traffic

to act as a gateway of last resort

to be the priority route in the routing table

 

7. A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements:
IP phones – 50
PCs – 70
IP cameras – 10
wireless access points – 10
network printers – 10
network scanners – 2

Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?

172.16.0.0/25

172.16.0.0/24*

172.16.0.0/23

172.16.0.0/22

 

8. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?

The static route is removed from the routing table.*

The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

 

9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?

C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2*

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

 

A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2*

A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0

A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2*

 

11. Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?

recursive static route

directly connected static route*

fully specified static route

default static route

 

12. Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

 

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2*

A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0

 

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?

 

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.5

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.6

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1*

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

 

14. What two pieces of information are needed in a fully specified static route to eliminate recursive lookups? (Choose two.)

the interface ID exit interface*

the interface ID of the next-hop neighbor

the IP address of the next-hop neighbor*

the administrative distance for the destination network

the IP address of the exit interface

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. What command would be used to configure a static route on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 remote network?

 

ipv6 route ::/0 serial0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::1

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::2*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1::/65 2001:db8:1:3::1

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?

 

R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/0

R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/0 fe80::2

R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/1 fe80::2*

R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/1 fe80::2

 

17. Consider the following command:

ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5

Which route would have to go down in order for this static route to appear in the routing table?

a default route

a static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network*

an OSPF-learned route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network

an EIGRP-learned route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. The routing table for R2 is as follows:

Gateway of last resort is not set

10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 2 subnets
C 10.0.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 10.0.0.4 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
192.168.10.0/26 is subnetted, 3 subnets
S 192.168.10.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 192.168.10.64 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
S 192.168.10.128 [1/0] via 10.0.0.6

What will router R2 do with a packet destined for 192.168.10.129?

drop the packet

send the packet out interface Serial0/0/0

send the packet out interface Serial0/0/1*

send the packet out interface FastEthernet0/0

 

19. A network administrator has entered a static route to an Ethernet LAN that is connected to an adjacent router. However, the route is not shown in the routing table. Which command would the administrator use to verify that the exit interface is up?

show ip interface brief*

show ip protocols

show ip route

tracert

 

20. Consider the following command:

ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5

How would an administrator test this configuration?

Delete the default gateway route on the router.

Ping any valid address on the 192.168.10.0/24 network.

Manually shut down the router interface used as a primary route.*

Ping from the 192.168.10.0 network to the 10.10.10.2 addres

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2 LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?

 

R2 needs a static route to the R1 LANs.

R1 and R2 must use a dynamic routing protocol.

R1 needs a default route to R2.

R1 needs a static route to the R2 LAN.*

R2 needs a static route to the Internet.

 

22. Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.)

show version

ping*

tracert

show ip route*

show ip interface brief*

show arp

 

23. An administrator issues the ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32 gigabitethernet0/0 2001:db8:acad:6::1 100 command on a router. What administrative distance is assigned to this route?

0

1

32

100*

 

24. Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?

 

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10*

 

25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Why are the pings from PC0 to Server0 not successful?

The static route to network 192.168.1.0 is misconfigured on Router1.

The static route to network 192.168.1.0 is misconfigured on Router2.​

The static route to network 192.168.2.0 is misconfigured on Router1.​*

The static route to network 192.168.2.0 is misconfigured on Router2.​

 

26. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What IPv6 static route can be configured on router R1 to make a fully converged network?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:10:12::1

ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32:77::1

CCNA v6.0 Routing and Switching Exam Answers 2017